Answer:
The probability of Joe spinning a 1 is a 1 out of 4 chance and the probability of him flipping heads is a 50/50 chance
Step-by-step explanation:
The spinner only has 4 numbers therefore getting any number out of those four would be a 1/4th probability. As for the coin, the coin only has 2 sides so there is a 50% chance it lands on heads or a 50% chance it lands on tails.
Answer:
x = -8, x = 5
Step-by-step explanation:
This can be solved using Factorization method:

Answer:
11,200
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that the lcm of a and b is 40 then a and b are factors of 40. All the multiples of 40 as sets are 1 and 40, 2 and 20, 4 and 10, 5 and 8. Of all these, only 5 and 8 would give a lcm of 40.
Let a = 5 and b = 8 as such,
7 a^2 = 7 * 5^2 = 175
7b^2 = 7 * 8^2 = 448
Then the lcm of 7 a^2 and 7b^2
= 11,200
Answer: x = 6
Step-by-step explanation: If you take 88.56 + 5x = 19.76x, an equation, you should first rearrange the variables to the left side of the equation: 5x - 19.76x = -88.56.
Next, you should combine your like terms. So, -14.76 = -88.56.
Then, divide both sides of the equation by the coefficient of variable. So, x = -88.56 / -14.76./
Lastly, calculate. Determine the sign for multiplication or division, so x = 88.56 / 14.76. Multiply both the numerator and denominator with the same integer. So, x = 8856 / 1476. Cross out the common factor, then you get your answer of x = 6
N/3>1
n>1*3
n>3 or (3,+∞)
Solution: n>3 or (3, +∞)