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tamaranim1 [39]
3 years ago
11

chapter 13Identify the type of cash flow activity for each of the following events (operating, investing, or financing). The com

pany determines net cash flow from operating activities by the indirect method: a. Net income Operating b. Paid cash dividends Financing c. Issued common stock Financing d. Issued bonds Financing e. Redeemed bonds Financing f. Sold long-term investments Investing g. Purchased treasury stock Financing h. Sold equipment Investing i. Issued preferred stock Financing j. Purchased buildings Investing k. Purchased patents
Business
1 answer:
maxonik [38]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

a. Net income - Operating  

b. Paid cash dividends - Financing

c. Issued common stock - Financing

d. Issued bonds - Financing

e. Redeemed bonds - Financing

f. Sold long-term investments - Investing

g. Purchased treasury stock - Financing

h. Sold equipment - Investing

i. Issued preferred stock - Financing

j. Purchased buildings - Investing

k. Purchased patents - Investing

Explanation

The statement of cash flows is basically made up of three sections: operating, financing and investing activity.

Statement of cash flows, using indirect method is simply a statement that records the cash inflows and outflows after adjusting for non-cash items.

  • Operating activities comprise the adjustment of non-cash items that were already added or subtracted from the net income in preparing the income statement in line with accrual accounting. Then, it records the movement in current assets and liabilities.
  • The Financing section comprises those activities that are geared towards improving the capital structure of the company like issuance of stocks, cash dividend payment, etc.
  • Finally, the Investing activities are those activities involving purchase of equipment or any other assets that would be used in the course of the business to generate revenue.
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MILLS ALLOCATES MANUFACTURING OVERHEAD TO PRODUCTION BASED ON STANDARD DIRECT LABOR HOURS. MILLS REPORTED THE FOLLOWING ACTUAL R
tekilochka [14]

Answer:

1. Compute the variable overhead cost and efficiency variances and fixed overhead cost and volume variances.

  • variable overhead cost variance = $1,000 unfavorable
  • variable efficiency variance = -$1,200 favorable
  • fixed overhead costs = $1,500 unfavorable
  • fixed overhead volume variance = -$100 favorable

2. EXPLAIN (as best you can) why the variances are favorable or unfavorable. Based on cost and efficiency budget standards.

  • variable overhead cost variance is unfavorable because actual variable overhead costs per unit are higher than budgeted.
  • variable efficiency variance is favorable because the company used less direct labor hours than budgeted to produce a higher amount of units (1,600 vs. 2,000).
  • fixed overhead costs are unfavorable because total fixed overhead costs were much higher than budgeted, but most of this variance can be explained by higher output.
  • fixed overhead volume variance are favorable because a higher volume was produced using less hours than budgeted.

Explanation:

Static budget variable overhead $1,200

Actual variable overhead $4,000

Static budget fixed overhead $1,600

Actual fixed overhead $3,100

Static budget direct labor hours 800 hours

Actual direct labor hours 1,600

Static budget number of units 400 units

Actual units produced 1,000

Standard direct labor hours 2 hours per unit

Actual direct labor hours 1.6 per unit

standard variable rate = $1,200 / 400 units = $3 per unit

actual variable rate = $4,000 / 1,000 units = $4 per unit

standard fixed rate = $1,600 / 800 hours = $2 per hour

actual fixed rate = $3,100 / 1,600 hours = $1.9375 per hour

variable overhead cost variance = actual costs - (standard rate x actual units) = $4,000 - ($3 x 1,000) = $1,000 unfavorable

variable efficiency variance = (actual hours x standard rate) - (standard hours x standard rate) = (1,600 × $3) − (2,000 x $3) = $4,800 - $6,000 = -$1,200 favorable

fixed overhead costs = actual overhead costs - budgeted overhead costs = $3,100 - $1,600 = $1,500 unfavorable

fixed overhead volume variance = (actual fixed rate x actual hours) - (standard rate x actual hours) = ($1.9375 x 1,600) - ($ x 1,600) = $3,100 - $3,200 = -$100 favorable

5 0
3 years ago
When the balance of an equity account, like Capital Stock, increases, it means that the account has been: Multiple Choice Deposi
Soloha48 [4]

Answer:

Credited

Explanation:

Equity Account <em>increase</em> on the credit side and <em>decrease </em>on the debit side.

So, when the account increased, we say it has been credited. This means further stock has been issued to new or existing owners.

8 0
3 years ago
River Falls Manufacturing uses a normal cost system and had the following data available for 2018: Direct materials purchased on
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Answer:

The ending balance of work-in-process inventory is $64,000

Explanation:

Opening Raw Material = $34,000

Opening WIP Inventory = $70,000

Opening Finished Goods Inventory = $55,000

Raw material purchased = $148,000

Raw materials requisitioned = $88,000

Closing Raw Material = Opening + Purchase - Requisitioned

= $34,000 + $148,000 - $88,000 = $94,000

Closing Finished Goods Inventory = Opening + Cost of goods produced - Cost of goods sold

= $55,000 + $299,000 - $250,000 = $104,000

Expense total incurred on goods entered for production = Material requisitioned + Labor cost incurred + Factory overhead

= $88,000 + $127,000 + $148,000 = $363,000

Out of which cost of completed goods = $299,000

Thus remaining is work in process = $363,000 - $299,000 = $64,000

That is Closing WIP Inventory = $64,000

Note: It is obvious that the expense of labor and overheads incurred in this period includes expense incurred to convert opening WIP in to finished goods and the balance is closing WIP.

The ending balance of work-in-process inventory is $64,000

5 0
3 years ago
Suppose you owned a portfolio consisting of $250,000 of long-term U.S. government bonds. Would your portfolio be riskless? Expla
hammer [34]

Answer and Explanation:

An investment when it would be risk free in that case both the principal and the interest amount are to be paid within the prescribed time. Also when the U.S government bonds i.e. long term would be issued by the government have a lesser interest rate as compared with the other riskier securities available at the market place this is because as the government would default next to zero in case of the short term it would make the default when there are extreme situations arise.

Therefore in the short term it would be risk free

But in the long run, the person is based on the treasury bills returns so that he or she could equate the similar standard of living also it would not suffice when the inflation rises

Therefore the less risky investment would be of Government bonds

6 0
3 years ago
On November 7, 2017, Mura Company borrows $160,000 cash by signing a 90-day, 8% note payable with a face value of $160,000. (Use
sergeinik [125]

Answer:

interst expense 1,920 debit

     interest payable      1,920 credit

--to record year-end adjustment--

interest expense     1,280 debit

interest payable      1,920 debit

note payable       160,000 debit

     cash                               163,200 credit

--to record the honor of the note--

Explanation:

principal x rate x time = interest

principal 160,000

rate 8% annual

days from November 7th to December 31th: 54 days

160,000 x 0.08 x 54/360 = <em>1,920 interest expense</em>

at maturity:

160,000 x 0.08 x 90/360 = 3,200

3,200 total interest less 1,920 accrued interest = 1,280

8 0
3 years ago
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