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andrew11 [14]
3 years ago
8

In a process-costing system, the cost of abnormal spoilage should be A. Included in the cost of units transferred out. B. Prorat

ed between units transferred out and ending inventory. C. Ignored. D. Treated as a loss in the period incurred.
Business
1 answer:
Olin [163]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

D. Treated as a loss in the period incurred.

Explanation:

The process-costing system is used by firms that produce goods that goes through a set of manufacturing departments i.e it's used when firms mass produce nearly identical or similar units through various processes.

Under process-costing system, direct costs of production are accumulated,  summarized, and then assigned to all the units produced during the period.

Thus, a single product cost is calculated by dividing process cost in each manufacturing department by the respective units produced during the production period.

Some organizations that use the process-costing system are oil refineries, chemical processing companies, eraser manufacturing companies, and food production companies.

In a process-costing system, the cost of abnormal spoilage should be treated as a loss in the period incurred.

The abnormal spoilage refers to the cost exceeding normal level, associated with spoiled units of a manufacturing process. It should be treated as a loss in the period incurred because it cannot be recovered

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Answer:

A sub-agent

Explanation:

Since Mike who was hired by Bob is licensed to practice law, which would help him file a lawsuit against those who don't pay the outstanding balances owed, he is a sub-agent.

A sub-agent in legal law is someone who performs a fiduciary duty and incurs the same liabilities in regard to his immediate employers, like the sole principal.

4 0
4 years ago
Use the following data to answer QuestionAccounts payable $30,000Accounts receivable 65,000Accrued liabilities 7,000Cash 20,000I
ra1l [238]

Answer:

Current (quick) assets: $195,000

Working capital: $138,000

Explanation:

We can find the correct answer by laying out the information appropriately:

Current Assets:

Accounts Receivable: $65,000

Cash: $20,000

Inventory: $72,000

Marketable securities: $36,000

Prepaid expenses: $2,000

Total: $195,000

Current Liabilities:

Accounts payable: $30,000

Accrued liabilities: $7,000

Notes payable (short-term): $20,000

Total: $57,000

Working capital = current assets - current liabilities

Working capital = $195,000 - $57,000

                           = $138,000

The following accounts mentioned in the question are non-current assets: intangible assets, long-term investments, and property, plant and equipment.

And long-term liabilities, as the name implies, is classified as a non-current liability.

3 0
3 years ago
A worker sets up to begin a painting job. He lays down a drop cloth and makes sure that the floor is even so that the ladder is
rodikova [14]

Answer:

You should never use the top of a ladder as a step. The employer should correct the worker’s behavior and ensure he knows the proper way to use a ladder.

Explanation:

He is standing at the top. He is not suppose to and OSHA does not approve this.

7 0
4 years ago
What would be you KPIs as the finance and human Resource officer?
Debora [2.8K]

Answer:

1.37 - 1.90

Explanation:

Really hard to say a exact number but here's and idea.

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3 years ago
Holding other things constant, an increase in the inflation rate in the US compared to China may cause the demand for dollar to
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Increase and increase. If it’s wrong please let me know!
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