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andrew11 [14]
3 years ago
8

In a process-costing system, the cost of abnormal spoilage should be A. Included in the cost of units transferred out. B. Prorat

ed between units transferred out and ending inventory. C. Ignored. D. Treated as a loss in the period incurred.
Business
1 answer:
Olin [163]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

D. Treated as a loss in the period incurred.

Explanation:

The process-costing system is used by firms that produce goods that goes through a set of manufacturing departments i.e it's used when firms mass produce nearly identical or similar units through various processes.

Under process-costing system, direct costs of production are accumulated,  summarized, and then assigned to all the units produced during the period.

Thus, a single product cost is calculated by dividing process cost in each manufacturing department by the respective units produced during the production period.

Some organizations that use the process-costing system are oil refineries, chemical processing companies, eraser manufacturing companies, and food production companies.

In a process-costing system, the cost of abnormal spoilage should be treated as a loss in the period incurred.

The abnormal spoilage refers to the cost exceeding normal level, associated with spoiled units of a manufacturing process. It should be treated as a loss in the period incurred because it cannot be recovered

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ou currently own 10 percent of the 3.0 million outstanding shares of Webster Mills. The company has just announced a rights offe
REY [17]

Answer: 9.09% ownership

Explanation:

Your current ownership of the shares in Webster Mills is 10% of 3 million.

That means that you own,

= 10% * 3 million

= 300,000 shares.

The new offering that the company is doing equates one right to each share of existing stock and is expected to raise $12 million in new financing at a cost of $40. The goal is to find out how many new shares this will add.

= 12,000,000/40

= 300,000 shares

This means that 300,000 new shares will be added.

There are already 3,000,000 shares outstanding and now there are 300,00 extra which would bring the total to,

= 3,000,000 + 300,000

= 3,300,000 outstanding shares.

Since you sold your rights then you still have shares but now your percentage of ownership will change because of the increase in outstanding shares.

Your ownership percentage is now,

= 300,000 shares (that you own) / 3,300,000 (new outstanding balance)

= 0.0909

= 9.09%

Your new ownership position is that you own 9.09% of Webster Mills.

8 0
3 years ago
Holly and matt want to use the "nonworking" spouse method to determine the amount of life insurance coverage they need. if their
Maksim231197 [3]

The best answer for this question would be:

 

$150,000

 

Because in the method of the “non-working” spouse method, they are given a calculation of (18 - youngest child's age) × $10,000 (18 being the legal age)

 

Resulting that the solution would be:

<span> (18 - 3) × $10,000 = $150,000</span>

8 0
4 years ago
Is god real yes or no answer
dem82 [27]
There is no factual evidence to either. Modern Christianity is based off of faith, you gotta believe he’s real. And in most other religions their god/gods are real. The only “proof” is either miracles or visions. Which in most cases can’t always be proven true. I say yes, but only because I believe he is.
5 0
3 years ago
The spherical bubbles near the surface of a glass of water are 2.5 mm in diameter at sea level where the atmosphere exerts a pre
larisa86 [58]

Answer:

145

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
You invest $1,000 in a complete portfolio. The complete portfolio is composed of a risky asset with an expected rate of return o
gizmo_the_mogwai [7]

Answer: 45%

Explanation:

Standard deviation for the portfolio will be a weighted average of the standard deviations of the individual assets.

Risky asset has standard deviation of 20%. Assume the weight is x.

Treasury bills have a standard deviation of 0 as they have no risk. Assume their weight is y.

Target Standard deviation is 9%.

Formula would be:

9% = (x * 20%) + (y * 0%)

20%x = 9%

x = 9% / 20%

x = 45%

4 0
3 years ago
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