Answer:
Percent, Part, whole, I am not sure the rest hope this helped though
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
1) is 3.32
Step-by-step explanation:
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Answer:
(f+g)(x) > 3 for all values of x
For 1 play, the chance of gaining $8 is 4/38, while the chance of losing the $1 is 34/38. Therefore, the expected value is ($8)(4/38) + ($-1)(34/38) = $(-1/19). Over 50 plays, which are mutually independent of each other, we multiply the number of plays by the expected value to get $(-50/19) = $-2.63.
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