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Vlada [557]
3 years ago
11

Howie Long has just learned he has won a $506,300 prize in the lottery. The lottery has given him two options for receiving the

payments.
(1) If Howie takes all the money today, the state and federal governments will deduct taxes at a rate of 46% immediately.

(2) Alternatively, the lottery offers Howie a payout of 20 equal payments of $37,000 with the first payment occurring when Howie turns in the winning ticket. Howie will be taxed on each of these payments at a rate of 26%.

Required:

1. Compute the present value of the cash flows for lump sum payout.

2. Assuming Howie can earn an 8% rate of return (compounded annually) on any money invested during this period, compute the present value of the cash flows for annuity payout.

3. Which pay-out option should he choose?
Business
1 answer:
Hitman42 [59]3 years ago
5 0

Answer and Explanation:

According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follow:-

A).Present Value of the Cash Flow for the Lump Sum Payout

= Prize of Lottery Amount × (1 -Tax Rate)

= $506,300 × (1 - 0.46)

= $506,300 × 0.54

= $273,402

B).Present Value of the Cash Flows for Annuity Payout is

= Annuity Payment × (1 - Tax Rate) × PVIFA 8%,20 Years × (1  + Rate of Return)

= $37,000 × (1 - 0.26) × 9.8181 × (1 + .08)

= $37,000 × 0.74 × 9.8181 × 1.08

= $290,325

c). According to the analysis, $290,325 is more than the $273,402, So he should be chooses option (b) $290,325 as a payout option.

     

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Scrat [10]

Answer:

50%

Explanation:

The computation of the probability for put option will be exercised is shown below:

She will exercise at the time when the exercise price i.e $.50 is bigger than the future spot price i.e (20% + 30% = 50%)

So in this case the probability should be 50%

Hence, the correct answer is option c.

All other information which is given is not relevant. Hence, ignored it

7 0
3 years ago
Pear Corporation is considering Alternative A and Alternative B. Costs associated with the alternatives are listed below:
makkiz [27]

Answer: B) Only materials costs are relevant

Explanation:

When choosing between alternatives, the main decider is the difference in costs. The costs that are different are the ones to decide whether a company takes on a project as it will signal the financial viability of a project.

In both alternatives, the Processing costs remain at $37,000 therefore the alternative chosen is irrelevant to these costs as they will be incurred regardless of the company's choice. They are therefore not to be considered.

Material costs on the other hand vary by the alternatives and so should be considered.

5 0
3 years ago
In the models that describe population growth, r stands for __________.in the models that describe population growth, r stands f
Julli [10]
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4 0
4 years ago
Negotiated transfer prices ______. are consistent with decentralization use the expertise of managers in weighing the costs and
ruslelena [56]

Answer:

1. are consistent with decentralization.

2. use the expertise of managers in weighing the costs and benefits of the transfer.

3. preserve the autonomy of the divisions.

Explanation:

A negotiated transfer prices can be defined as the final price reached between the buyer (consumer) of finished goods and services and the trader (seller) of such goods and services.

Negotiated transfer prices has the following advantages;

1. Negotiated transfer prices are consistent with decentralization.

2. Use the expertise of managers in weighing the costs and benefits of the transfer.

3. They preserve the autonomy of the divisions.

4 0
3 years ago
Suppose the U.S. dollar is defined by law as being equal to 0.1 ounce of gold. Further suppose the British pound is defined as b
motikmotik

Answer:

The exchange rate is $1 = 2 pounds.

Explanation:

The exchange rate is the relative value of the two currencies. In other words, the amount of one currency you can exchange for another currency.  

The US dollar is defined as equal to 0.1 ounces of gold.  

The British Pound is defined as equal to 0.05 ounce of gold.  

The exchange rate between the two countries is

= \frac{value\ of\ US\ dollar}{value\ of\ British\ Pound}

= \frac{0.1}{0.05}

= 2

So the exchange rate is $1 = 2 pounds. This means that $1 can be used to exchange 2 pounds.

6 0
3 years ago
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