Answer:
Option (C) is correct.
Explanation:
Variable costs = $28
Allocated fixed costs = $17
Selling price = $84
Due to acceptance of M offer, S would be got excess contribution margin per unit. Because acceptance selling price ($34) is greater than the variable cost per unit ($28).
We don't have any information about the fixed cost due to acceptance. Therefore, we assumed that fixed cost is not increased.
Increased contribution margin per unit:
= Selling price - Variable cost
= $34 - $28
= $6
For 3,000 units, Increased contribution margin = 3,000 × $6
= $18,000
Therefore, net income is increased by $18,000 when the offer is accepted.
Answer:
receivable turnover ration = 6
Explanation:
credit sales = 120000
Credit sales =As we know that: Receivables turnover ration = Net credit sales /Average account receivable.
= 120000/ 20000
= 6.
it indicates that company convert its receivable to cash 6 times that year.
<span>Researchers have discovered that "cyber-ostracism" by strangers elicits increased activity in the anterior cingulate cortex. If a stranger experience cyber-ostracism that means that they have been excluded or have excluded someone which could create emotions of bitterness or loneliness, superiority. The anterior cingulate cortex controls human emotions, so it would be responsible for the making the stranger experience any feelings that occurs during cyber-ostracism.</span>
Answer:
The real risk free rate is 3.8%
The exact risk-free rate is 3.68%
Explanation:
The interest rate on the Treasury bills is usually a combination of real risk free rate and inflation rate to compensate investors for average inflation in the economy during the instrument lifetime which equals nominal risk-free rate.
nominal risk-free rate = real risk-free rate+inflation rate
nominal risk-free rate=7%
inflation rate=3.2%
real risk-free rate=7%-3.2%
real risk-free rate=3.8%
The exact real risk-free rate can be computed thus:
nominal rate+1=(real risk-free rate+1)*(inflation rate+1)
real risk-free rate=(nominal rate+1)/(inflation rate+1)-1
real risk free rate=(1.07/1.032)-1
real risk-free rate=0.036821705
real risk-free rate=3.68%
Answer:
I think the answer is D. All of the above
Explanation: