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lapo4ka [179]
3 years ago
14

A rope is tied to the bottom of a hot air balloon as shown below. The rope makes an angle of 35 degrees with the ground distant

of 75 feet. How far is the bottom of the balloon from the ground to the nearest foot. (Please show work)

Mathematics
1 answer:
Serjik [45]3 years ago
8 0
We have a right triangle. We know the hypotenuse (75 ft) and an angle of 35°. We need to find the opposite leg to the angle of 35° (h). The trigonometric function that relates the opposite leg to an angle with the hypotenuse is sine:
sin 35° = (Opposite leg to 35°) / hypotenuse
sin 35° = h/(75 ft)

Solving for h:
(75 ft) sin 35°=h
h=75 sin 35° ft
h=75 (0.573576436) ft
h=43.01823270 ft
h=43 ft

Answer: T<span>he bottom of the balloon is 43 ft from the ground</span>
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Could someone explain how you would solve this? I really don't understand it.
nlexa [21]
Because of rules of geometry we know that a+b=180 degrees so we can add the equations together and set that equal to 180 and solve
6x-48+4x+38=180
subtract 38 from both sides and add 48 to both sides
then add like terms
10x=170
and divide by 10 to get 
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7 0
3 years ago
2/3x+5=1 what is the solution to the equation shown?
Fudgin [204]

Answer:

x = - 6

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

\frac{2}{3} x + 5 = 1 ( subtract 5 from both sides )

\frac{2}{3} x = - 4

Multiply both sides by 3 to clear the fraction

2x = - 12 ( divide both sides by 2 )

x = - 6

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please help me ASAP!
faust18 [17]

With parallel lines, they will never touch one another. Therefore, there shouldn't be any solution.

7 0
3 years ago
A real estate agent has 17 properties that she shows. She feels that there is a 50% chance of selling any one property during a
Likurg_2 [28]

Answer:

0.0011 = 0.11% probability of selling less than 3 properties in one week.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each property, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are sold, or they are not. The chance of selling any one property is independent of selling another property. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

A real estate agent has 17 properties that she shows.

This means that n = 17

She feels that there is a 50% chance of selling any one property during a week.

This means that p = 0.5

Compute the probability of selling less than 3 properties in one week.

This is

P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{17,0}.(0.5)^{0}.(0.5)^{17} \approx 0

P(X = 1) = C_{17,1}.(0.5)^{1}.(0.5)^{16} = 0.0001

P(X = 2) = C_{17,2}.(0.5)^{2}.(0.5)^{15} = 0.0010

P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0 + 0.0001 + 0.0010 = 0.0011

0.0011 = 0.11% probability of selling less than 3 properties in one week.

5 0
2 years ago
Compound Interest: Hannah is putting 10,000 dollars in the bank for 5 years at 6% p.a every 6 months what is her Final Balance?
8090 [49]
I think you can solve it by doing this: 

10(10,000+0.06)= Final Balance 

6 months + 6 months = 1 year

^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
    She has to pay twice a year 


Now that we know that just multiply 2 by 5 and you get 10. 10(10,000+0.06)= Final Balance 

So it should be 100000.6

Not sure if that's right so ask someone to check


6 0
3 years ago
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