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Alecsey [184]
3 years ago
9

Discuss the different roles played by the qualitative and quantitative approaches to managerial decision making. Why is it impor

tant for a manager or decision maker to have a good understanding of both of these approaches to decision making? Give an example of when the qualitative approach might be more appropriate and another example of when the quantitative approach might be more appropriate.
Business
1 answer:
Allisa [31]3 years ago
4 0

Explanation:

Regarding the management decision-making process, there are two different approaches that the manager must know and know how to use in certain situations.

The qualitative approach is one that is based on experimental knowledge of various factors involved in decision making, such as interpersonal connections that occur in the work environment, in this approach it is necessary that the manager has an intuition and accurate perception of the organization as a whole before making an important decision

The quantitative approach is one that uses mathematical statistics for decision making, generally works best for solving measurable problems, and for this reason can be used by a manager without much direct experience.

The qualitative approach may be more appropriate in a situation where a manager needs to solve problems related to situations of conflict between organizational departments, because in this scenario it is necessary to have knowledge of factors that generate the complex interaction between people.

The quantitative approach can be more useful in a scenario where it needs to analyze which are the most profitable departments in the organization and what is the probability of each department generating profits in the company, because in this case accounting data are used to support decision making.

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Tool Manufacturing has an expected EBIT of $82,000 in perpetuity and a tax rate of 24 percent. The company has $143,500 in outst
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Answer:

The value of the firm according to M&M Proposition I with taxes is $513,824.62

Explanation:

Value of firm = [EBIT x (1-Tax) / Equity Cost] + [Debt x Tax rate]

Value of firm = 82000 x (1-24%) / 13% + 143500 x 24%

Value of firm = 62320 / 0.13 + 143500 x 0.24

Value of firm = 479,384.62 + 34,440‬

Value of firm = $513,824.62‬

7 0
3 years ago
Susan's father warned her about buying real estate. He told her that it was her responsibility to determine the facts about a pr
Margarita [4]

The legal issue that  Susan's father  was advising her about is: Caveat emptor.

<h3>What is Caveat emptor?</h3>

Caveat emptor is a Latin words which means let the buyer beware before buying or purchasing a property.

Hence,  Susan's father advising her about Caveat emptor which is why he told her facts to obtain a thorough inspection before buying or purchasing the real estate.

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8 0
2 years ago
Booth's fixed assets were used to only 50% of capacity during 2019, but its current assets were at their proper levels in relati
hoa [83]

This question is incomplete. The complete question is given below:

The Booth Company's sales are forecasted to double from $1,000 in 2016 to $2,000 in 2017. Here is the December 31, 2016, balance sheet:

Cash  $  100  Accounts payable  $   50

Accounts receivable  200  Notes payable  150

Inventories  200  Accruals  50

Net fixed assets  500  Long-term debt  400

Common stock  100

Retained earnings  250

Total assets  $1000  Total liabilities and equity  $1000

Booth's fixed assets were used to only 50% of capacity during 2016, but its current assets were at their proper levels in relation to sales. Spontaneous liabilities and all assets except fixed assets must increase at the same rate as sales, and fixed assets would also have to increase at the same rate if the current excess capacity did not exist. Booth's after-tax profit margin is forecasted to be 3% and its payout ratio to be 50%. What is Booth's additional funds needed (AFN) for the coming year? Round your answer to the nearest dollar.

Answer:

Booth's additional funds needed (AFN) for the coming year = 370

Explanation:

Additional Funds Needed (AFN):

Additional Funds Needed (AFN) is a way of calculating how much new funding will be required, so that the firm can realistically look at whether or not they will be able to generate the additional funding and therefore be able to achieve the higher sales level.

Formula of AFN:

AFN = [ ( A / S0 ) * ΔS - ( L / S0 ) * ΔS - MS1 * ( RR ) ]

where

A = Assets linked with sales

Formula for Assets:

Assets = Cash + Account receivable + Inventories

As

Cash = 100

Account receivable = 200

Inventories = 200

therefore by putting the values in the above formula, we get

= 100 + 200 + 200

= 500

ΔS = Difference in sales between S0 and S1

S0 = Sales of last year

S1 = Total projected sales for next year

As the Booth Company's sales are forecasted to double from $1,000 in 2016 to $2,000 in 2017 so

ΔS = 2000 - 1000

ΔS = 1000

L = Spontaneous liabilities

Formula for Spontaneous liabilities:

L = Accounts payable + Accruals

therefore by putting the values in the above formula, we get

L = 50 + 50

L = 100

MS1 = Projected net income

RR = Retention Ratio

M = 0.05

RR = 1 - 0.7

RR = 0.3

therefore by putting the values in the above formula, we get

Additional Funds Needed = ( 500 / 1000 ) * 1000 - ( 100 / 1000 ) * 1000 - 0.05 * 2000 * 0.3

Additional Funds Needed = 370

Therefore, Booth's additional funds needed (AFN) for the coming year = 370

6 0
3 years ago
. If the price elasticity of demand for pineapple is 0.75, a 4% increase in the price of pineapple will lead to a A. 3% decrease
ludmilkaskok [199]

Answer:

A) 3% decrease in the quantity demanded of pineapple.

Explanation:

We know that the demand curve is negative, which means that as price of a product increases, its demand will decrease.

In unitary elasticity(1) the change in demand means that the change in quantity demanded will be the same. A 0.75 elasticity will thus mean that the quantity demanded will change by a factor of 0.75 as compared to the change in price.  

Therefore when the price of pineapple increases by 4%, the quantity demanded will decrease by 4 * 0.75 = 3%

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Presented below are two independent cases related to available-for-sale debt investments. Case 1 Case 2 Amortized cost $41,640 $
netineya [11]

Answer:

Case 1 = $9,420

Case 2 = 0

Explanation:

Determining the amount of impairment loss is given below:-

Case 1

Impairment loss = Amortized cost - Fair value

= $41,640 - $32,220

= $9,420

Case 2

Impairment loss = Amortized cost - Fair value

= 91,800 - $102,220

= 0

Since, the fair value is higher than Amortized cost so the value of Impairment loss in case 2 is 0.

5 0
4 years ago
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