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JulsSmile [24]
2 years ago
9

Everything else equal, if the United States runs a large foreign trade deficit, the financing of the deficit will: a. increase g

overnment subsidies. b. increase interest rates. c. decrease sales of Treasury securities. d. increase the money supply. e. decrease tax revenue.
Business
1 answer:
sladkih [1.3K]2 years ago
6 0

Answer: decrease tax revenue

Explanation:

A trade deficit occurs when the import of a country's is more than the export of the country for a given period of time period. The main cause is when there's an imbalance between the savings of a country and the investment rates.

In this case, financing the deficit will lead to the reduction in the tax revenue. When part of the tax revenue gotten from economic agents are used in the finance of the deficit, there'll be a reduction in the tax revenue.

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To satisfy demands for withdrawals, banks keep:
astra-53 [7]
C. balance sheets

explanation:
6 0
3 years ago
In silicon valley, california, it is not unusual for highly skilled employees to stay at one company for about three years. thes
Anuta_ua [19.1K]

Answer:

Type A

Explanation:

William Ouchi developed the Japanese management Theory Z which served as a reference for understanding the great economic boom in Asian countries.

Type A organizations focus on individual performance and accountability, they generally rely on short term evaluation periods and rapid promotions of high achievers and encourages personal efficiency.

5 0
3 years ago
QUICK ONE!
never [62]

Answer:

Rate is 1.5 times the straight line depreciation rate which is;

= \frac{80,000}{8}

= $10,000 per year

Rate = \frac{10,000}{80,000} * 100%

=12.5%

Reducing balance rate = 12.5% * 1.5

= 18.75%

The Depreciation Schedule would be;

Year   Beginning Book Value  Depreciation Expense   Accumulated Depreciation   Book Value

1  $80,000  80,000*18.75% = $15,000   $15,000   $65,000

2  $65,000  65,000 * 18.75% = $12,1875.50   $27,187.50   $52,812.50

3  $52,812.50  52,812.5 *18.75% = $9,902.34   $37,187.84   $42,910.16

4  $42,910.16  42,910.16 * 18.75% = $8,045.66   $45,233.50   $34,766.50

5  $34,766.50  34,766.50 * 0.1875 = 6,518.72   $51,752.22   $28,247.78

6  $28,247.78  28,247.78 * 0.1875= $5,296.45   $57,048.67   $22,951.33

7  $22,951.33  22,951.33 * 0.1875= 4,403.37   $61,452.04   $18,547.96

8  $18,547.96  18,547.96 * 0.1875 = $3,477.74    $80,000   $0

   $3,477.74 + 15,070.22= $18,574.96      

Depreciation for the last year was not sufficient to take the truck to $0 so the remainder will be depreciated in that year so that it may be completely depreciated.

3 0
3 years ago
QS 3-7 Adjusting prepaid (deferred) expenses LO P1 For each separate case, record the necessary adjusting entry. On July 1, Lope
kicyunya [14]

Answer:

S/n   General Journal              Debit      Credit

a       Insurance expense        $1,200

               Prepaid Insurance                   $1,200  

        (To record insurance expired)

b       Supplies expense          $6,200

                Supplies                                  $6,200

                ($5,000 + $2,000 - $800)

         (To record supplies used)

5 0
3 years ago
Bernice’s has $823,000 in sales. The profit margin is 4.2 percent and the firm has 7,500 shares of stock outstanding. The market
Irina-Kira [14]

Answer:

a. 3.58

Explanation:

the price earning ratio is obtain with the following formula:

\frac{Market \: Price}{EPS}

We are given with the market price, now we need to solve for the EPS

with sales and profit margin we solve for net income. then we divide by the shares outstanding to get the EPS

823,000 sales x 4.2 profit margin = 34.566‬ net income

now we solve for EPS Earning per share:

\frac{Income}{Shares}\\\frac{34,566}{7,500} = 4.6088‬

Now we can sovle for price-earnings ratio

\frac{Market \: Price}{EPS}

16.50/4.61 = 3,5791 = 3.58

8 0
2 years ago
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