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solong [7]
3 years ago
15

Which statement about parallel lines is true?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Pie3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

the last one

Step-by-step explanation:

Parallel lines never intersect.

hope this helps

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F(x) = x2 - 4.<br> Find the inverse of the function
Lisa [10]

Answer:

f^{-1}(x) = √ x + 4

Step-by-step explanation:

step 1) replace f(x) with y

y = x² - 4

step 2) switch the x and y (because every (x, y) has a (y, x))

x = y² - 4

step 3) add 4 to both sides of the equal sign

x + 4 = y²

step 4) take the square root of both sides of the equal sign (the square root symbol cancels out the ²)

√ x + 4 = y

step 5) you know have the inverse of f(x) = x² - 4

f^{-1}(x) = √ x + 4

5 0
2 years ago
EVERYONE GO GIVE DRAZOAVANS1 A BRAINLIEST PLZZZZZ!!!!
GaryK [48]

Answer:

we can only give brainliest if we ourselves have asked the a question ( to which she/he answered)

3 0
2 years ago
Based on the 2009 season, the Texas Rangers have a winning percentage of .533. Use the binomial model to find the probability th
Naddik [55]

Answer:

0.128

Step-by-step explanation:

We know the probability for any event X is given by,

P(X=x)=\binom{n}{x}\times p^{n-x}\times q^{x},

where p is the probability of success and q is the probability of failure.

Here, we are given that p = 0.533.

Since, we have that q = 1 - p

i.e. q = 1 - 0.533

i.e. q = 0.467

It is required to find the probability of 4 wins in the next 5 games i.e. P(X=4) when n = 5.

Substituting the values in the above formula, we get,

P(X=4)=\binom{5}{4}\times 0.533^{5-4}\times 0.467^{4}

i.e. P(X=4)=5 \times 0.533 \times 0.048

i.e. P(X=4)=5 \times 0.533 \times 0.048

i.e. i.e. P(X=4)=0.128

Hence, the probability of 4 wins in the next 5 games is 0.128.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A manufacturer of matches randomly and independently puts 23 matches in each box of matches produced. The company knows that one
d1i1m1o1n [39]

Answer:

0.9855 or 98.55%.

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of each individual match being flawed is p = 0.008. The probability that a matchbox will have one or fewer matches with a flaw is the same as the probability of a matchbox having exactly one or exactly zero matches with a flaw:

P(X\leq 1)=P(X=0)+P(X=1)\\P(X\leq 1)=(1-p)^{23}+23*(1-p)^{23-1}*p\\P(X\leq 1)=(1-0.008)^{23}+23*(1-0.008)^{23-1}*0.008\\P(X\leq 1)=0.8313+0.1542\\P(X\leq 1)=0.9855

The probability  that a matchbox will have one or fewer matches with a flaw is 0.9855 or 98.55%.

8 0
3 years ago
HELPPP MEHHHHHHHHH!!!:(
Lady bird [3.3K]

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

Rounding 5 to the nearest tenth would give you 1 and adding 1 to 9 would give you 10 which would 10 tenths which is 1

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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