Either way nothing can more can be done do this problem
Answer:
Yes
Step-by-step explanation:
f(x) = (x + 1)(x + 2)
f(x) = x² + 3x + 2
f'(x) = 2x + 3
The derivative of f(x) is 2x + 3, so f(x) is an anti-derivative of 2x + 3.
It is 1/2 because Ik it is
Answer:
+52
Step-by-step explanation:
