Can someone help me pls? Thankss:)
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Answer:
Thus, the statement is False!
Step-by-step explanation:
When the domain of a function has an infinite number of values, the range may not always have an infinite number of values.
For example:
Considering a function
Its domain is the set of all real numbers because it has an infinite number of possible domain values.
But, its range is a single number which is 5. Because the range of a constant function is a constant number.
Therefore, the statement ''When the domain of a function has an infinite number of values, the range always has an infinite number of values'' is FALSE.
Thus, the statement is False!