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Alika [10]
3 years ago
7

What is 1+1? Very urgent

Mathematics
1 answer:
forsale [732]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

62

Step-by-step explanation:

anything plus 1 equals 62.

Hope this helps. Have a nice day you amazing bean child.

( jk jk. It's 2)

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A cone and a cylinder have the same base and height, as shown below.
marshall27 [118]

The statement that apply is that the volume of the cone is One-third the volume of the cylinder

<h3>How to find the volume of a cone and cylinder?</h3>

volume of a cone = 1 / 3 πr²h

where

  • r = radius
  • h = height of the cone

Volume of a cylinder = πr²h

where

  • r = radius
  • h = height

The cone and the cylinder has the same base and height. Therefore, the radius and height are the same .

volume of the cylinder = 84π

Therefore, the volume of the cone is One-third the volume of the cylinder.

learn more on volume here: brainly.com/question/16031618

#SPJ1

6 0
2 years ago
Choose the net for the three-dimensional figure.<br> Hurry please guys
AveGali [126]
I think it will be C
7 0
4 years ago
20 points answer correctly
nika2105 [10]
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3 0
4 years ago
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A group consists of fivefive men and fivefive women. ThreeThree people are selected to attend a conference. a. In how many ways
dem82 [27]

a).  Three people can be selected from a group of ten in

(10 · 9 · 8) = <em>720 ways</em>.

(But every group of 3 different people can be selected in 6 different ways.  So there are actually only (720/6) = 120 different groups of 3 different people.)

b).  Three women can be selected from a group of five women in

(5 · 4 · 3) = <em>60 ways</em>.

(But every group of 3 different women can be selected in 6 different ways.  So there are actually only (60/6) = 10 different groups of 3 different women.)

   

c).  Start with 3 men and 3 women.

The probability of the first selection being a woman is (3/6) = 50% .

Then there are 3 men and 2 women.

The probability of the 2nd selection being a woman is (2/5) = 40% .

Then there are 3 men and 1 woman.

The probability of the 3rd selection being a woman is (1/4) = 25% .

The probability of all 3 selections being women is

(50% ·40% ·25%) = (0.5 ·0.4 ·0.25) = <em>0.05</em>

The probability that the selected group will consist of all women is <em> 5%</em> .

8 0
3 years ago
How do you solve 1/2(6)(h+1)=18​
luda_lava [24]

Multiply 6 by 1/2 to get 3

Ow you have :

3( h + 1) = 18

Distribute the 3:

3h + 3 = 18

Subtract 3 from both sides:

3h = 15

Divide both sides by 3:

H = 5

4 0
3 years ago
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