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Marat540 [252]
3 years ago
11

A company had the following information taken from various accounts at the end of the year:

Business
1 answer:
kotegsom [21]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Net Revenue = $383000

Explanation:

Below is the calculation for net revenue:

Net revenue = Total revenue - Sales discount - sales allowances

Given Total revenue = 459000

Sales discount = 41000

Sales allowances = 35000

Net Revenue = 459000 - 41000 - 35000

Net revenue = 459000 - 76000

Net Revenue = $383000

The net revenue of the company for the year is $383000.

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Which of the following strategies is represented by McDonald’s experimenting with their traditional menu, as well as changing th
Harman [31]

Answer:

In the United States. McDonald’s spends the biggest slice of their budget. The company does many new product trials and innovation in its home country, where it has the biggest audience. The company’s advertising is typically skewed to children in the United States, where McDonald’s produces about 250 ads annually.

In Japan. The company’s ad campaigns are widely different. The Japanese ads are focused on adults as well as children, with some features that are unique to the locale’s culture.

6 0
3 years ago
A Liquidation of a partnership LO P5 Kendra, Cogley, and Mei share income and loss in a 3:2:1 ratio (in ratio form: Kendra, 3/6;
morpeh [17]

Answer:

a. Inventory is sold for $608,400.

gain on sale of inventory = $608,400 - $537,600 = $70,800

allocation of gain:

Kendra 1/2 x $70,800 = $35,400

Cogley 1/3 x $70,800 = $23,600

Mei 1/6 x $70,800 = $11,800

Dr Cash 608,400

    Cr Inventory 537,600

    Cr Gain on sale of inventory 70,800

Dr Gain on sale of inventory 70,800

    Cr Kendra, capital 35,400

    Cr Cogley, capital 23,600

    Cr Mei, capital 11,800

Dr Accounts payable 258,000

    Cr Cash 258,000

Dr Kendra, capital 112,100

Dr Cogley, capital 196,175

Dr Mei, capital 146,025

    Cr Cash 454,300

b. Inventory is sold for $469,200.

loss on sale of inventory = $469,200 - $537,600 = -$69,400

allocation of loss:

Kendra 1/2 x $68,400 = $34,200

Cogley 1/3 x $68,400 = $22,800

Mei 1/6 x $68,400 = $11,400

Dr Cash 469,200

Dr Loss on sale of inventory 68,400

    Cr Inventory 537,600

 

Dr Kendra, capital 34,300

Dr Cogley, capital 22,800

Dr Mei, capital 11,400

    Dr Loss on sale of inventory 68,400

Dr Accounts payable 258,000

    Cr Cash 258,000

Dr Kendra, capital 42,400

Dr Cogley, capital 149,775

Dr Mei, capital 122,825

    Dr Cash 315,100

c) c. Inventory is sold for $358,800 and any partners with capital deficits pay in the amount of their deficits.

loss on sale of inventory = $358,800 - $537,600 = -$178,800

allocation of loss:

Kendra 1/2 x $178,800 = $89,400

Cogley 1/3 x $178,800 = $59,600

Mei 1/6 x $178,800 = $29,800

Dr Cash 358,800

Dr Loss on sale of inventory 178,800

    Cr Inventory 537,600

 

Dr Kendra, capital 89,400

Dr Cogley, capital 59,600

Dr Mei, capital 29,800

    Dr Loss on sale of inventory 178,800

Dr Cash 12,700

    Cr Kendra, capital 12,700

Dr Accounts payable 258,000

    Cr Cash 258,000

Dr Cogley, capital 112,975

Dr Mei, capital 104,425

    Dr Cash 217,400

   

d. Inventory is sold for $298,800 and the partners have no assets other than those invested in the partnership.

loss on sale of inventory = $298,800 - $537,600 = -$238,800

allocation of loss:

Kendra 1/2 x $238,800 = $119,400

Cogley 1/3 x $238,800 = $79,600

Mei 1/6 x $238,800 = $39,800

Dr Cash 298,800

Dr Loss on sale of inventory 238,800

    Cr Inventory 537,600

 

Dr Kendra, capital 119,400

Dr Cogley, capital 79,600

Dr Mei, capital 39,800

    Dr Loss on sale of inventory 238,800

Dr Cogley, capital 28,467

Dr Mei, capital 14,233

    Cr Kendra, capital 42,700

Dr Accounts payable 258,000

    Cr Cash 258,000

Dr Cogley, capital 64,508

Dr Mei, capital 80,192

    Dr Cash 144,700

6 0
3 years ago
Suppose Saron has 7 Birr to be spent on two goods: banana and bread. The unit price of banana is 1 Birr and the unit price of a
mojhsa [17]

Answer:

Solution:

A.

p_x=3, G_x=\frac {100}{3}=33\frac{1}{3}p

x

=3,G

x

=

3

100

=33

3

1

p_y=5, G_y=\frac{100}{5}=20p

y

=5,G

y

=

5

100

=20

B.

100-0.25\times 100=75100−0.25×100=75

p_x=3, G_x=\frac {75}{3}=25p

x

=3,G

x

=

3

75

=25

p_y=5, G_y=\frac{75}{5}=15p

y

=5,G

y

=

5

75

=15

C.

p_x=6, G_x=\frac {100}{6}=16\frac{2}{3}p

x

=6,G

x

=

6

100

=16

3

2

D.

p_y=5, G_y=\frac{100}{4}=25p

y

=5,G

y

=

4

100

=25

2.

MU_x=68-60=8, p_x=2MU

x

=68−60=8,p

x

=2

MU_y=29-25=4, p_y-?MU

y

=29−25=4,p

y

−?

\frac {MU_x}{p_x}=\frac{MU_y}{p_y}

p

x

MU

x

=

p

y

MU

y

\frac{8}{2}=\frac {4}{p_y}

2

8

=

p

y

4

p_y=1p

y

=1

8 0
2 years ago
For​ 2018, Rest-Well Bedding uses​ machine-hours as the only overhead​ cost-allocation base. The direct cost rate is​ $6.00 per
maria [59]

Answer:

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $6.875 per machine-hour

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

The estimated manufacturing overhead costs are​ $275,000 and an estimated​ 40,000 machine hours.

To calculate the predetermined manufacturing overhead rate we need to use the following formula:

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 275,000/40,000

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $6.875 per machine-hour

3 0
3 years ago
If you need tutor I'm here i tutor for 1-6th grade​
BARSIC [14]

Answer:

ok thank you I will keep you in mind

7 0
3 years ago
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