The probability that her first treat is jelly is 4/20. Since she eats the candy and does not replace it, the probability the second treat is jelly would be 3/19 (1 less jelly and 1 less total candies). You would then multiply (4/20) by (3/19). That is your answer.

3 0

3 years ago

Do this for me pls its mdths

Vadim26 [7]

Answer:

A = -1

B = -3

C = -7

Step-by-step explanation:

See attached image.

5 0

2 years ago

Hi please help me, i’ll give brainliest

Licemer1 [7]

Answer:

lol dont u love these answers.

the answer is: NO SOLUTION

Step-by-step explanation:

i swear these are the most annoying lol.

please give me brainliest

btw try using math_way for a future reference.

have a good day!

8 0

2 years ago