Answer:
B. one firm has the exclusive ownership of a scarce resource.
Explanation:
Monopoly can be regarded as market structure whereby a single seller thrives, this is a structure whereby the seller sells a unique product in the market. As far as monopoly market is concerned, no competition is been encontered by the manufacturer , because he is the only one selling goods with no close substitute. As a result of this there is restrictions of the entry of other sellers in the market.
It should be noted that monopoly may exist because one firm has the exclusive ownership of a scarce resource.
Answer:
Explanation:
I will give a basic hint to understanding this problem
Prevailing technique or what is best known as "Dominant Strategy" is an activity profile that is best for a specific player review of what different players are picking. for this situation there is no prevailing procedure for any player on the grounds that there is no single activity profile that expands the result for any player.
So we can say from this observations that the following is valid;
- A doesn't have a dominant strategy
- B doesn't have a dominant strategy
There are two Nash equilibria for this situation. Both the organizations are charging a low cost and both the organizations are charging a significant expense.
As such they can augment their benefit given what the adversary is doing.
I hope this explains the observation seen.
cheers I hope this helps
Answer:
Bad Debt expense = Allowance for uncollectible debit + (Estimated uncollectibles)
= 1,900 + (15% * 116,000)
= $19,300
1.
Dec. 31 DR Bad debt expenses $19,300
CR Allowance for Uncollectable $19,300
2. Balance Sheet;
= 116,000 * 15%
= $17,400
Income Statement;
= $19,300
3. Net realizable value
= Accounts receivable - Estimated uncollectibles
= 116,000 - 17,400
= $98,600
Answer:
$671,300
Explanation:
The calculation of adjusted basis in the building is shown below:-
Adjusted basis = Original cost of the property + Cost of capital improvements - Depreciation claimed
= $750,000 + $50,000 - $128,700
= $800,000 - $128,700
= $671,300
Therefore for computing the adjusted basis we simply add original cost of the property with cost of capital improvements and deduct depreciation claimed.
Answer:
(A). People may expect earnings to fall in the future, perhaps because the firm will be faced with increased competition.
Explanation:
Price Earnings ratio of a company represents market price per share of a company's stock in relation to it's earnings per share.
Price Earnings ratio(PER) is given by the following formula:
PER = 
A lower P/E Ratio indicates that a company's market price of a share is lower relative to it's earnings. This means the company's stock is undervalued.
It can also mean that the company's earnings have increased which in turn has increased it's earnings per share.
Investors in general expect lower earnings in future for the stock of a company with low P/E Ratio.
