$15.00 .....this sentence is just filler because $15.00 is too short.
Answer:
7.52%
Explanation:
First and foremost ,the yield to maturity on the old issue is computed using the rate formula in excel as calculated below:
=rate(nper,pmt,-pv,fv)
the nper is the number of times the bond would pay annual coupon interest of $106,which is 20 times
pmt is the amount of annual coupon payment which is $106
pv is the current price of the bond at $860
fv is the face value of the bond at $1000
=rate(20,106,-860,1000)=12.54%
The yield to maturity on the new issue is 12.54% as well
after-tax cost of debt=pretax cost of debt*(1-t)
pretax cost of debt is yield to maturity of 12.54%
t is the tax rate of 40% or 0.4
after-tax cost of debt=12.54%
*(1-0.4)=7.52%
Answer:
B. The value of the next most valuable opportunity.
Explanation:
The opportunity cost of an investment is the value of the next most valuable opportunity.
Answer:
B) Decreased $138 million
Explanation:
To determine the effects of long term debt accounts on HP's total cash flow form financing we can use the following formula:
HP's cash flow from financing = new shares issued - shares repurchased - dividend payments + cash flows related to long term debt account + income from other financing activities
-$6,077 = $0 -$5,241 -$894 + X + $196
-$6,077 = -$5,939 + X
-$138 = X
HP's long term debt accounts decreased by $138
Answer:
The exchange rate implies in exchange rate of $1.75 but current market exchange rate is $1.80 which means that the dollar is undervalued and pound is over valued in the market.
We will buy Dollar in the market and use these dollars to buy gold and then sell this gold in Euros
E.G Buy a $1000 from the market for £555(10,000*1/1.8)
After that we can by 28.5(1000/35) ounces of gold from that and sell the gold for £571(20*28.5). This way we make a profit of £16 (571-555) without taking any risk.
Explanation:
