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katrin2010 [14]
3 years ago
11

Alpha Industries stock sold for $39 a share at the beginning of the year. During the year, the company paid a dividend of $3 a s

hare and then ended the year with a stock price of $37. The change in the stock price is best described as a:
Business
1 answer:
nadezda [96]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: c. capital loss.

Explanation:

A capital loss refers to a scenario where the price of a security falls below the price at which it was purchased. This is what happened to the Alpha Industries stock above as the price dropped from $39 to $37 which led to a capital loss of $2.

The dividends paid seem to outweigh the capital loss but we cannot be certain of this unless we know the tax rate being applied to the dividends and because these are usually high, the after tax dividends might have been lower the capital loss of $2.

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Mallard Corporation uses the product cost concept of product pricing. Below is cost information for the production and sale of 4
KiRa [710]

Answer:

1. Cost per unit = 860,500/45000 units = $19.12

2. Mark up = 12% * 800,000 = $96,000/45000 units = $2.13

mark up = 2.13/19.12 = 11.14%

3. Therefore selling price per unit = $19.12+$2.13 = $21.25

Explanation:

Variable direct materials cost per unit............................ 5.50

Variable direct labor cost per unit.................................... 7.65

Variable factory overhead cost per unit .........................2.25

Variable selling and administrative cost per unit........... .90

TOTAL VARIABLE COST PER UNIT..................................16.3

TOTAL VARIABLE COST = $16.3*45000 units = $733,500

Fixed factory overhead cost $82,000

Fixed selling and administrative costs 45,000

TOTAL COST = $ 860,500

1. Cost per unit = 860,500/45000 units = $19.12

2. Mark up = 12% * 800,000 = $96,000/45000 units = $2.13

mark up = 2.13/19.12 = 11.14%

3. Therefore selling price per unit = $19.12+$2.13 = $21.25

5 0
3 years ago
An individual taxpayer reported the following net long-term capital gains and losses:Year Gain (loss)1 ($5,000)2 1,0003 4,000The
Leona [35]

Answer:

A) 4000

Explanation:

Long term capital losses cannot be set of against the long term capital gains of next year

As a result an individual taxpayer should report in the

year 3 is $4000

5 0
3 years ago
Quinlan has ample E & P to cover any distributions made during the year. One distribution made to a shareholder consists of
stepladder [879]

Answer:

1.Quinlan distribution has realized a loss of

$214,480 of which $0 is recognized.

2. The shareholder received property with a basis of $321,720

Explanation:

1.

When property is been said to be distributed to shareholders the amount of dividend equal to the fair value of the said property which is $321,720 on the date of the distribution. Therefore the amount of taxable dividend is $321,720 which is before the dividends received deduction.

Therefore;

Net loss which shall not be allowed ($536,200-$321,720)

=$214,480

Quinlan distribution has realized a loss of

$214,480 which is not allowed to be recognized

2. Adjusted basis of the property distributed is $321,720

6 0
3 years ago
Do all states pay the same unemployment compensation and for the same length of time?
kondaur [170]

Answer:

Explanation:

Ultimately, the onus is on the state government to balance the checkbook, so the state has to decide the benefits maximum amount, duration, and eligibility to receive the benefits. For this reason, you notice that unemployment benefits largely vary by state. Some states like Massachusetts could pay as high as $1,220 depending on the eligibility criteria.

4 0
3 years ago
Klose Outfitters Inc. believes that its optimal capital structure consists of 60 percent common equity and 40 percent debt, and
Eduardwww [97]

Answer:

WACC 10.38305%

Explanation:

<em><u>First we solve for the source of financing:</u></em>

Expansion: 5,900,000

60% Equity: 3,540,000

Retained Earnins 2,000,000

then 1,540,000 will be common equity

40% debt: 2,360,000 It can raise up to 3,000,000 so it will be sufficient

D  2,360

E  1,540

RE 2000

V  5,900

Now we can solve for Weighted average cost of capital

WACC = K_e(\frac{E}{E+RE+D}) + K_{re}(\frac{P}{E+RE+D}) + K_d(1-t)(\frac{D}{E+RE+D})

Ke 0.15

Equity weight 0.261016949 (1,540,000 / 5,900,000)

Kre 0.12

RE Weight  0,338983  (2,000,000 / 5,900,000)

Kd 0.1

Debt Weight 0.4 ( 2,360,000 / 5,900,000)

t 0.4

WACC = 0.15(0.261016949152542) + 0.12(0.338983050847458) + 0.1(1-0.4)(0.4)

WACC 10.38305%

5 0
3 years ago
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