Answer:
53/405
Step-by-step explanation:
Are the inequalities x > 3 and 3 < x equivalent?
They both say that x must be larger than 3. No bickering here. So yep, they're equivalent.
Inequalities usually have a lot of solutions—in fact, infinitely many. Think about the inequality x > 3. This inequality states that "x must be larger than 3." Any number bigger than 3 is a solution to this inequality. That includes 3.001, 3.0001, 4, 5, 2 million, and every other number bigger than 3. We don't have time at the moment to name them all,
Ok, so we see in
y=a(x-h)^2+k
vertex is (h,k)
vertex is highest or lowest point
on one side, it goes up and other side it goes down
if a is positive, then it goes down then up
if a is negative, it goes up then down
we see
f(x)=2(x+3)^2+2
2 is positive
goes down then up
vertex is (-3,2)
so decreases from -infinity to -3 or ininterval
(-infinity,-3)
answer is first option
