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iris [78.8K]
2 years ago
5

ANSWER THIS PLZZZZZZ!!!!!

Mathematics
2 answers:
larisa [96]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

b

Step-by-step explanation:

Over [174]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

you were right, the answer is

D) the time spend reading book and the number of pages remaining to be read in the book.

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If the cost of a dress is $75.00 and
11Alexandr11 [23.1K]

Answer:

80%

Step-by-step explanation:

Original price =$75.00

Sale price =$60.00

The percentage discount can be calculated by dividing the sale price by the original price multiplied by 100%.

So % discount = $60.00/$75.00 x 100%

0.8 x 100%

80%

Janelle got the dress on a discount of 80%.

This is so because she got the dress for a price less than the original price

6 0
2 years ago
Brennon has a summer job working for the
Lera25 [3.4K]
Brennon should make about $212.05. since 153/18 is 8.5, all we do is multiply 8.5 by 25. that gives us 212.5, convert it to money and you get $212.05.
6 0
3 years ago
When individuals in a sample of 150 were asked whether or notthey supported capital punishment, the following information was ob
tensa zangetsu [6.8K]

Answer:

a. distribution is uniform

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that  a sample of 150 were asked whether or notthey supported capital punishment.

3)

we prepare contingency tab

Expected = 50 50 50

Chisquare = 4

chi square 2 2 0 4

p value 0.135

Since p >0.05 we accept H0

a. distribution is uniform

3 0
3 years ago
A player tosses a die 6 times.If gets a number 6 Atleast two times he wins 2 dollars ,otherwise he looses 1 dollar.. Find the ex
swat32

Answer:

E(x)=-0.2101

Step-by-step explanation:

The expected value for a discrete variable is calculated as:

E(x)=x_1*p(x_1)+x_2*p(x_2)

Where x_1 and x_2 are the values that the variable can take and p(x_1) and p(x_2) are their respective probabilities.

So, a player can win 2 dollars or looses 1 dollar, it means that x_1 is equal to 2 and x_2 is equal to -1.

Then, we need to calculated the probability that the player win 2 dollars and the probability that the player loses 1 dollar.

If there are n identical and independent events with a probability p of success and a probability (1-p) of fail, the probability that a events from the n are success are equal to:

P(a)=nCa*p^a*(1-p)^{n-a}

Where nCa=\frac{n!}{a!(n-a)!}

So, in this case, n is number of times that the player tosses a die and p is the probability to get a 6. n is equal to 6 and p is equal to 1/6.

Therefore, the probability  p(x_1) that a player get at least two times number 6, is calculated as:

p(x_1)=P(x\geq2)=1-P(0)-P(1) \\\\P(0) =6C0*(1/6)^{0}*(5/6)^{6}=0.3349\\P(1)=6C1*(1/6)^{1}*(5/6)^{5}=0.4018\\\\p(x_1)=1-0.3349-0.4018\\p(x_1)=0.2633

On the other hand, the probability p(x_2) that a player don't get  at least two times number 6, is calculated as:

p(x_2)=1-p(x_1)=1-0.2633=0.7367

Finally, the expected value of the amount that the player wins is:

E(x)=x_1*p(x_1)+x_2*p(x_2)\\E(x)=2*(0.2633)+ (-1)*0.7367\\E(x)=-0.2101

It means that he can expect to loses 0.2101 dollars.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Express 80 as a product of its prime factors, write the prime numbers in accending order
Alex73 [517]

Answer:

80 as a product of prime numbers can be expressed as 2×2×2×2×5

4 0
1 year ago
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