Hello!
To solve this, lets put it into a system of equations where w=width and L=length.
2w+2L=80
L-8=w
To solve, we see that w=L-8. We can substitute this in the first equation to find L and then w.
2(L-8)+2L=80
2L-16+2L=80
4L-16+80
4L-16=80
4L=96
L=24
Now that we know L=24, we can find w. 24-8=16. Now we know that L=24 and w=16.
Lets check our answer. In our original system of equations, we have 48+32=80, which is true, and 24-8=16. Also, the perimeter must equal 80. 16+16+24+24=80.
As our final answer, the width of the pool is 16 feet, and the length is 24 feet.
Hope this helps!
Answer:
Option (C)
Step-by-step explanation:
From the graph attached,
In ΔABC and ΔA'B'C',
∠A ≅ ∠A'
∠B ≅ ∠B'
Therefore, ΔABC ~ ΔA'B'C'
Corresponding sides of these triangles will be proportional.
Therefore, ratio of the sides, AC : A'C' = 1 : 3 shows that image triangle A'B'C' is a dilated form of pre-image ABC with a scale factor of 3.
Option (C) will be the correct option.
<span>binomial </span>is an algebraic expression containing 2 terms. For example, (x + y) is a binomial.
We sometimes need to expand binomials as follows:
(a + b)0 = 1
(a + b)1 = a + b
(a + b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2
(a + b)3 = a3 + 3a2b + 3ab2 + b3
<span>(a + b)4</span> <span>= a4 + 4a3b</span><span> + 6a2b2 + 4ab3 + b4</span>
<span>(a + b)5</span> <span>= a5 + 5a4b</span> <span>+ 10a3b2</span><span> + 10a2b3 + 5ab4 + b5</span>
Clearly, doing this by direct multiplication gets quite tedious and can be rather difficult for larger powers or more complicated expressions.
Pascal's Triangle
We note that the coefficients (the numbers in front of each term) follow a pattern. [This was noticed long before Pascal, by the Chinese.]
1
1 1
1 2 1
1 3 3 1
1 4 6 4 1
1 5 10 10 5 1
1 6 15 20 15 6 1
You can use this pattern to form the coefficients, rather than multiply everything out as we did above.
The Binomial Theorem
We use the binomial theorem to help us expand binomials to any given power without direct multiplication. As we have seen, multiplication can be time-consuming or even not possible in some cases.
<span>Properties of the Binomial Expansion <span>(a + b)n</span></span><span><span>There are <span>\displaystyle{n}+{1}<span>n+1</span></span> terms.</span><span>The first term is <span>an</span> and the final term is <span>bn</span>.</span></span><span>Progressing from the first term to the last, the exponent of a decreases by <span>\displaystyle{1}1</span> from term to term while the exponent of b increases by <span>\displaystyle{1}1</span>. In addition, the sum of the exponents of a and b in each term is n.</span><span>If the coefficient of each term is multiplied by the exponent of a in that term, and the product is divided by the number of that term, we obtain the coefficient of the next term.</span>
B is the answer!
Explanation:
m^2 n^2 fits into both, you can take m^2 n^2 out of it both.
m is a common factor since you can take m out of both but it’s not the greatest common factor.
2n & 2m wouldn’t even be a common factor bc there is no 2n or 2m in neither.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
6 1/2 - 6 1/2 + 7 3/8 =
0 + 7 3/8 = 7 3/8
