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Sliva [168]
3 years ago
6

A building is acquired on January 1, at a cost of $980,000 with an estimated useful life of 10 years and salvage value of $88,20

0. Compute depreciation expense for the first three years using the double-declining-balance method.
Business
1 answer:
harina [27]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Year 1 = $196,000

Year 2= $156,800

Year 3= $125,440

Explanation:

Double-declining-balance rate = 100% / 10 years x 2 = 20%. Computation of annual depreciation expense are as follows;

Year 1

$980,000 x 20 % = $196,000

Net book value

$980,000 - $196,000 = $784,000 (to be used as base for year 2)

Year 2

$784,000 x 20% = $156,800

Net book value

$784,000 - 156,800 = $627,200

Year 3

$627,200 x 20% = $125,440

Net book value

$627,200 - $125,440 = $501,760

*Salvage value is ignored in computing the yearly depreciation expense under double-declining-balance method. The reason of it is that, it will take longer to depreciate an asset compare to it’s useful life if we deduct salvage value from original cost in depreciating an asset.

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Goodwill generated internally should be:__________
mash [69]

Answer: c. is the difference between the fair value of the net tangible and identifiable intangible assets and the purchase price of the acquired business.

Explanation:

Question is not formatted correctly as it is asking for the definition of goodwill, not goodwill generated internally.

Goodwill is the difference between the net identifiable total assets of a company and the purchase price of that same company. It is essentially a premium paid on the book value of the company and it is influenced by a number of things such as location, customer base, profit potential and others.

The company that did the buying will then incorporate this goodwill into their own books. This is why companies that have a lot of goodwill on their books have usually been involved in acquisitions.

7 0
3 years ago
All wages paid were subject to FICA. FICA tax rates were 7% each for employee and employer. In InterSlice’s jurisdiction employe
BARSIC [14]

Answer:

Payroll tax expense is $1,080 and Withholdings due to IRS is $2,280

Explanation:

InterSlice Co.'s payroll for the month ended March year 8, is summarized as follows:

Total wages

$12,000

Federal income tax withheld

1,440

All wages paid were subject to FICA. FICA tax rates were 7% each for employee and employer. In InterSlice's jurisdiction employers must also pay unemployment taxes under FUTA at a 2% rate. InterSlice remits taxes on the 15th of the following month. As a result of March  year 8 wages, what amounts should InterSlice record in its journal entry for March payroll tax expense and March withholdings due to IRS?

The payroll of an employer tax expense includes all the taxes the employer is required to pay based on its payroll. This taxes would include FICA at 7% and FUTA at 2% thereby making a total of 9% (2% + 7%) of $12,000 in wages.

Withholding's due to the IRS are taxes paid by employees as a result of employers withholding the taxes from the employees wages and paying it to the taxing authority. This includes fedral income taxes withheld of $1,440 and the employees' FICA, which is 7% of $12,000

Payroll tax = 12000 × 9% = 12000 × 0.09 = 1080

Payroll tax = $1080

Withholding due to IRS = 1440 + (12000 x 0.07) = 2280

Withholding due to IRS = $2280

Reasoning

Payroll exp you only own the portion that you pay for

Withholding due to IRS Liability is because you own them what you have taken out of the checks to your workers, and the amount your going to take out of their checks.

3 0
3 years ago
What is the business model of Brainly? how can make money from users
n200080 [17]
When ever users make new accounts , use brainly or access it there is money going into to system.

It's a corporate thing to deal with. the money simply comes from the civil service of the community.

I really hope that this helps you out a lot.


6 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Beckham Broadcasting Company (BBC) has operating income (EBIT) of $2,500,000. The company's depreciation expense is $500,000 and
Bad White [126]

Answer:

BBC's free cash flow is $1,000,000.

Explanation:

Free cash flow is the cash a company generates from its business activities after deducting the cash flows from operations and capital assets. The free cash flow is given by the formula below:

= EBIT × (1 -Tax Rate) + Depreciation & Amortization  - Net investment

The parameters are available in the question, what needs to be done is to input those numbers as follows:

Free cash flow = $2,500,000 x (1 - 40%) + $500,000 - $1,000,000

Applying the basic BODMAS rule, you have

Free cash flow  = $1,500,000 + $500,000 - $1,000,000

Therefore, BBC's free cash flow is $1,000,000.

5 0
3 years ago
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9966 [12]

Answer:

the awnser is jeidjbeheidolal idowneheudjsbveudjs dg

4 0
3 years ago
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