Answer: it is the first function: y = f(x) = Explanation:1) You can give a quick answer to this question when you realize that the function graphed is restricted ot positve x - values.
Because, the
domain of both 9ˣ and x⁹ is all the real numbers and, indeed, the domain of the logarithmic function is x > 0.
2) Other remarkable feature is the
limit of the function as x approaches zero.
The limit of 9ˣ when x approaches 0 is 1.
The limit of x⁹ when x approaches 0 is 0
And the limit of log₉ x when x approaches 0⁺ is negative infinity.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
The triangles CED and CGF are similar since two sides are on same line and one side is parallel.
<u>Corresponding sides have equal ratios:</u>
- CG/CE = CF/CD
- CG/CE = (CD - 1.8)/CD
- 6/(6 + 2.4) = (CD - 1.8)/CD
- 6/8.4 = (CD - 1.8)/CD
- 1/1.4 = (CD - 1.8)/CD
- 1*CD = 1.4CD - 1.4*1.8
- 0.4CD = 2.52
- CD = 2.52/0.4
- CD = 6.3
B. 105. If the line is equal to 180 degrees and you subtract 75, you get 105.
Answer:
D. 108 liters
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that the leak is ;
5 drops = 5 minutes
?= 4 weeks
Find number of hours in 4 weeks
1 week=7days
4 weeks=?--------------cross multiply
4×7=28 days
1 day=24 hours
28 days=?--------------cross multiply
28×24=672 hours
Hour= 60 minutes
672 hours=?
672×60=40320 minutes
Finding the leakage in 4 weeks
80 drops= 5 minutes
?=40320 minutes------------cross multiplication
(40320×80)÷5 =645120 drops
Finding the liters of water wasted in 4 weeks
60 drops of water= 10 milliliters
645120 drops of water=?-------------cross multiply
(645120×10)÷60 =107520 milliliters
But you know
1 milliliter=0.001 liters
107520 milliliters=?-----------cross multiply
107520×0.001
=107.52 liters
=108 liters
Answer:
it would take 40 pounds of pressure to break the board.
Step-by-step explanation:
Now we plug in the numbers of force and length
Now we multiply both sides by 2.5 to get rid of the fraction.
Now we plug in our variation constant
So we convert the length of 2.5 feet into inches. This is 18 inches. Since there are 12 inches in one foot, we have that 18 inches is equal to 18 divided by 12.
18÷12=1.5
We get that 18 inches is equal to 1.5 feet
we plug L = 1.5 into our inverse variation equation and solve for F.
This simplifies to F = 40
If you have any questions feel free to ask in the comments - Mark
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