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wariber [46]
3 years ago
12

The company cost of capital for a firm with a 60/30/10 debt/common/preferred split, 8% cost of debt, 15% cost of equity, preferr

ed stock sells for $50 today, and will pay a $6 dividend in year 1. Assume a 35% tax rate, solve for WACC.
a. 7.02%
b. 8.82%
c. 10.50%
d. 13.62%
Business
1 answer:
sveticcg [70]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

b. 8.82%

Explanation:

WACC = Cost of equity x Weight of equity + Cost of Preferred Stock x Weight of Preferred Stock + Cost of Debt x Weight of Debt

Cost of Preferred Stock calculation :

Cost of Preferred Stock = Expected dividend / Market Price x 100

                                        = $6 / $50 x 100

                                        = 12 %

After tax cost of debt calculation :

After tax cost of debt = Interest x (1 - tax rate)

                                    = 8 % x (1 - 0.35)

                                    = 5.20 %

therefore,

WACC = 15% x 30 % + 12 % x 10 %+ 5.20 % x 60 %

           = 8.82 %

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3 years ago
You are bearish on Telecom and decide to sell short 100 shares at the current market price of $50 per share.
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A. $2,500

B. $60

Explanation:

A. Calculation to determine How much in cash or securities must you put into your brokerage account if the broker's initial margin requirement is 50% of the value of the short position

Initial Margin = 100*$50*50%

Initial Margin = $2,500

Therefore The amount of securities that you must put into your brokerage account if the broker's initial margin requirement is 50% of the value of the short position is $2,500

b. Calculation to determine How high can the price of the stock go before you get a margin call if the maintenance margin is 30% of the value of the short position

First step is to calculate the Maintenance Margin per share

Maintenance Margin per share = $50*30%

Maintenance Margin per share =$15

Second step is to calculate the Rise in price required

Rise in price required = $50*50% - $15

Rise in price required= $10

Now let calculate How high can the price of the stock go

Price of stock=$50+$10

Price of stock= $60

Therefore How high can the price of the stock go before you get a margin call if the maintenance margin is 30% of the value of the short position is $60

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In the United States, ownership of intellectual property rights is established by "prior use versus registration" which implies
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3 years ago
Universal Laser, Inc., just paid a dividend of $3.10 on its stock. The growth rate in dividends is expected to be a constant 6 p
Vadim26 [7]

Answer:

Ans. The current price of the stock is $56.82

Explanation:

Hi, well, the problem here is that we have different discount rates, in other words the required rate of return for the stock changes several times, therefore we are going to break this problem in 3 parts, or bring to present value all the cash flows in 3 steps. Let´s start with the value of the dividends.

We have to use the following formula.

Dn=D_{(n-1)} *(1+g)

Where, D(n-1) is last dividend and Dn is the dividend that we are looking for, for example, D1 = 3.10*(1+0.06)=3.29, D2=3.29*(1+0.06)=3.48, and so forth. The amount to pay on dividends per share is,

D1=3.29; D2=3.48; D3=3.69; D4=3.91; D5=4.15; D6=4.40; D(7)=4.66

Since the first 3 years are to be discounted at a 15%, this is how the formula should look like.

PV(1)=\frac{D1}{(1+r(1))^{1} } +\frac{D2}{(1+r(1))^{2} } +\frac{D3}{(1+r(1))^{3} }

PV(1)=\frac{3.29}{(1+0.15)^{1} } +\frac{3.48}{(1+0.15)^{2} } +\frac{3.69}{(1+0.15)^{3} }=7.92

Now, for the second part, we have to bring all cash flows to year 3 at r(2)=13% and then bring it to present value at r(1)=15%. This is because we have 2 different discount rates, this is as follows.

PV(2)=(\frac{D4}{(1+r(2))^{1} } +\frac{D5}{(1+r(2))^{2} } +\frac{D6}{(1+r(2))^{3} })*\frac{1}{((1+r(1)^{3} }

PV(2)=(\frac{3.91}{(1+0.13)^{1} } +\frac{4.15}{(1+0.13)^{2} } +\frac{4.40}{(1+0.13)^{3} })*\frac{1}{(1+0.15)^{3} } =6.42

Finally, we need to bring all the future cash flows from year 7 and beyond, notice that we need to use the return rate r(3) to bring everything to year 6, then we have to bring it to year 3 and then to present value, everything as follows.

PV(3)=(\frac{D7}{(r(3)-g)} )*(\frac{1}{(1+r(2))^{3} } )*(\frac{1}{(1+r(1))^{3} } )

PV(3)=(\frac{4.66}{(0.11-0.06)} )*(\frac{1}{(1+0.13)^{3} } )*(\frac{1}{(1+0.15)^{3} } )=42.48

So, the price of the stock is PV(1) + PV(2) + PV(3), or:

Price=7.92+6.42+42.48=56.82

Price= $56.82/share

Best of luck.

3 0
3 years ago
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