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2 years ago

You can display good customer service by

Business

2 answers:

Fiesta28 [93]2 years ago

5 0

Answer:

Showing good manner, asking if they need anything, and etc...

Explanation:

Reptile [31]2 years ago

3 0

Answer:

having a professional appearance while attending to costumers.

hope this helps

have a good day:)

Explanation:

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January 1, 2016, Kendall Inc. began construction of an automated cattle feeder system. The system was finished and ready for use

tankabanditka [31]

Answer:

Interest capitalized for 2017 = $86,805

Explanation:

As per the data given in the question,

Average expenditure for 2016 = ($200,000×12÷12) +($300,000×4÷12)+($300,000×0÷12)

=$300,000

Interest capitalized for 2016 =($200,000×12÷12)+($300,000×4÷12)+($300,000×0÷12)×12%

= $36,000

Average expenditure for 2017 :

Accumulated expenditure in 2016 = ($200,000+$300,000+$300,000 +$36,000)×9÷9

= $836,000

For March-31,2017 = $300,000×6÷9

= $200,000

For Sept-30,2017 = $200,000×0÷9 = $0

Average expenditure for 2017 = $836,000 + $200,000 + $0

= $1,036,000

Interest capitalized for 2017 :

Specific borrowing = $750,000×9÷12×12%

= $67,500

Excessive amount = ($1,036,000 - $750,000)×9÷12×9%

= $19,305

Interest capitalized for 2017 = $67,500 + $19,305

= $86,805

4 0

3 years ago

When amazon introduced the kindle fire tablet device at $199 while apple was selling the lowest price ipad for $499, amazon was

Svetradugi [14.3K]

Amazon were probably a deal pricing strategy

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Perpetuities are also called annuities with an extended or unlimited life. Based on your understanding of perpetuities, answer t

Ad libitum [116K]

Answer:

The current value of a perpetuity is based more on the discounted value of its nearer (in time) cash flows and less by the discounted value of its more distant (in the future) cash flows.

Explanation:

The perpetuities can becalculate as follow

C/rate = Perpetuities

the reasoning behind this formula:

$C * \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\$

If we calculate limit whe ntime is infite,

because at more time 1 + r gets closer and closer to 0

we get on the dividend

1 - 0

So we have C x 1/i = C/i

Next part would be why the first cash flow is more relevant than the subsequent cash flow:

$\frac{Principal}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV$

Here if time increases, then the divisor get closer to ∞ so we have

P ( a constant) /∞ = 0

So the first cashflow is more relevant than the more distant cash flow

8 0

3 years ago

_____ are travelers who prefer visiting unusual, exotic places.

Digiron [165]

They are dependable hoped i helped

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Windswept, Inc. 2016 and 2017 Balance Sheets ($ in millions) 2016 2017 2016 2017 Cash $ 260 $ 280 Accounts payable $ 1,510 $ 1,7

Lemur [1.5K]

Answer:

$74,16

Explanation:

Note : I have attached the full question as images below !

Price Earning ratio = Price per share ÷ Earnings per share

= $24

Where,

Earnings per share = Earnings attributable to Common Stock holders ÷ Weighted Average Number of Common Stock Outstanding

therefore,

Earnings per share = $1,640 ÷ 530 = $3.09

so,

Market Price per share = Price Earning ratio x Earnings per share

Market Price per share = $24 x $3.09

= $74,16

3 0

2 years ago