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muminat
3 years ago
14

What proves m ∆ADB and ∆ADC are congruent.

Mathematics
1 answer:
AURORKA [14]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: They're the same angles/measurements.

Step-by-step explanation: Look closely at both the angles. If you measure them, they will be the same because both angles look the same, but ΔADC's side is flipped.

Let me know if you have any questions.

~ Lily, from Brainly.

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Why 1+1+1+1+...+1 is not geometric sequence
Olegator [25]
That sequence is not geometric or arithmetic
it is not changing or doing anything it is just remaining the same.

it would be geometric if it was:

1+1-1+1-1+1........
4 0
3 years ago
The real car is 8 feet long and the model is 6 inches long. What is the ratio of the length of the car to the length of the mode
Lubov Fominskaja [6]
6 : 8
hope this helps ^^
8 0
3 years ago
Can someone help ^^; im not good with math
ivanzaharov [21]
It’s 7 in that’s the only answer that makes sense
5 0
2 years ago
A portable CD player costs $48. How much is a payment of 25% of the cost
levacccp [35]

25% is the same is 1/4 of something. So you have to find what 1/4th of 48 is. To do that, just divide 48 by 4. and you get 12.

A 25% payment on a CD player that costs $48 would be $12. Hope that helps!

4 0
3 years ago
A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0
3 years ago
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