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Answer:
38.5%
Explanation:
Rf = 8.0%
Rm = 18.0%
Beta = 3.05
RRR ?
from the given data the capital asset pricing model will be used to calculate the RRR
RRR = Rf + β (Rm - Rf)
=8.0 + 3.05 (18.0-8)
=38.5%
Answer:
Indirect manufacturing cost= $22100
Explanation:
We are provided with the following information:
Direct materials $ 6.20
Direct labor $ 3.10
Variable manufacturing overhead $ 1.35
Fixed manufacturing overhead $ 14,000
Sales commissions $ 1.50
Variable administrative expense $ 0.40
Fixed selling and administrative expense $ 4,500
6,000 units are produced
Indirect manufacturing cost= variable overhead + fixed manufacturing overhead= 1,35*6000+14000= $22100
The opportunity cost of 1x is 29y.
<h3>What is the opportunity cost?</h3>
Opportunity cost of the next best option forgone when one alternative is chosen over other alternatives.
It can be seen that the economy can produce a maximum of 30 units of either product x or y. If 1 of x is being produced, the opportunity cost is 29 (30 - 1)y.
To learn more about opportunity cost, please check: brainly.com/question/26315727
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