Answer:
c. May be able to avoid liability to the extent she had no reason to know of the deficiency (and did not have actual knowledge) when filing the return. The burden of proof will be on her.
Explanation:
The doctrine of <em>innocent spouse relief</em> might apply here. Mrs. Jones will have to prove that:
- the income that was omitted was earned by her husband, not her.
- she must prove that when she signed the tax filings, she was not aware of the omission.
- after examining all the facts surrounding the omission, the IRS must decide that blaming her would not be fair.
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.
Explanation:
Given that,
Project 1:
Initial investment = $120,000
Cash inflow Year 1, Year 2, Year 3, Year 4, Year 5 = $40,000
Hence,
Annual cash flow = $40,000
Payback period:
= Initial investment ÷ annual cash inflow
= $120,000 ÷ $40,000
= 3 years
Therefore, the payback period for Project I is 3 years.
What this agent has to do should be to advise the buyer that there may be special assessments levied against property.
<h3>Who is a house agent?</h3>
This is a person that acts as a third party to a person that wants to buy or rent a house and the person that is giving out the property.
The agent here has to tell the buyer that the reason for these taxes is the fact that there are other levies on the property.
Read more on house agents here:brainly.com/question/13957036
If the midlands pencil corporation has issued several different debt securities, an investor would expect the lowest income stream from <u>convertible debentures.</u>
Convertible bonds have many positive attributes for investors, but the main drawback is that investors accept lower interest rates in exchange for these benefits.
Convertible debentures are fixed rate debentures that pay interest but can be converted into a specified number of ordinary shares or shares. Conversion of a bond into equity may occur at certain times during the life of the bond and is generally at the discretion of the bondholder.
Due to this logic, a convertible bond allows the issuer to indirectly sell its common stock at a price higher than its current price. From a buyer's perspective, convertible bonds are attractive because they offer the opportunity to capture the potentially high yields associated with equities, but also the security of bonds.
Learn more about bonds here brainly.com/question/9817093
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Answer:
The interest rate is higher in the US.
Explanation:
The forward price is calculated using the following formula,
F= S ( 1+Rd / 1+Rf)^t
where,
- F = Forward rate
- S = Spot rate
- Rd = Nominal interest rate in domestic market
- Rf = Nominal interest rate in foreign market
- t = time in years
We consider that the domestic market is the US and the domestic currency is the USD. Thus, it is a direct quote where 1 EUR = 1.3 USD
The forward price ER is more than the Sport ER only when the interest rate in domestic market is more than the interest rate in foreign market and as a result, the value of domestic currency against a foreign currency in the forward market depreciates.
We can see this by the following example,
Say Spot rate is $1.3 per 1 EUR and the interest rate in US is 10% while that in Euro zone is 5%. When we calculate the forward ER we will see that 1 EUR will buy us more USD in forward (more than 1.3 USD)
F= 1.3 * (1.1 / 1.05)^1 => $1.362 PER 1EUR
