Answer:
x = 27
Step-by-step explanation:
Since AC and DE are parallel lines, then
∠ BAD = ∠ EDF= 2x ( corresponding angles )
The sum of the 3 angles in Δ BAD = 180°, thus
2x + 2x + 72 = 180, that is
4x + 72 = 180 ( subtract 72 from both sides )
4x = 108 ( divide both sides by 4 )
x = 27
Answer:
From our calculations the large jar is the best value for money because a penny buys more honey
Step-by-step explanation:
<h2>In this problem we are expected to determine which purchase of honey is the cheapest ? large jar or small jar ?.</h2><h2 />
We will determine which has the best value for money using the quantity a pound can purchase.
firstly for the large jar.
if £4.10 will purchase 540g of honey then,
£1.00 will purchase xg
cross multiplying to find x will have


Hence for the large jar a penny would buy 131.7g of honey
secondly for the small jar
if £2.81 will purchase 360g of honey then,
£1.00 will purchase xg
cross multiplying to find x will have

Hence for the small jar a penny would buy 128.1g of honey
I need a little more to work with
The angstrom<span>, also known as the </span>angstrom<span> unit, is a measure of displacement equal to 0.0000000001 meter (10 -10 m). It would be helpful to convert the units of angstrom to mm. We do as follows:
diameter = 2 x 1.35 x10^ -10 m ( 1000 mm / 1 m ) = 2.7 x 10^-10 mm / atom
Number of gold atoms = 8.5 mm / </span>2.7 x 10^-10 mm / atom = 31481481481.481 atoms
Answer:
First, we write the augmented matrix.
⎡
⎢
⎣
1
−
1
1
2
3
−
1
3
−
2
−
9
|
8
−
2
9
⎤
⎥
⎦
Next, we perform row operations to obtain row-echelon form.
−
2
R
1
+
R
2
=
R
2
→
⎡
⎢
⎣
1
−
1
1
0
5
−
3
3
−
2
−
9
|
8
−
18
9
⎤
⎥
⎦
−
3
R
1
+
R
3
=
R
3
→
⎡
⎢
⎣
1
−
1
1
0
5
−
3
0
1
−
12
|
8
−
18
−
15
⎤
⎥
⎦
The easiest way to obtain a 1 in row 2 of column 1 is to interchange \displaystyle {R}_{2}R
2
and \displaystyle {R}_{3}R
3
.
Interchange
R
2
and
R
3
→
⎡
⎢
⎣
1
−
1
1
8
0
1
−
12
−
15
0
5
−
3
−
18
⎤
⎥
⎦
Then
−
5
R
2
+
R
3
=
R
3
→
⎡
⎢
⎣
1
−
1
1
0
1
−
12
0
0
57
|
8
−
15
57
⎤
⎥
⎦
−
1
57
R
3
=
R
3
→
⎡
⎢
⎣
1
−
1
1
0
1
−
12
0
0
1
|
8
−
15
1
⎤
⎥
⎦
The last matrix represents the equivalent system.
x
−
y
+
z
=
8
y
−
12
z
=
−
15
z
=
1
Using back-substitution, we obtain the solution as \displaystyle \left(4,-3,1\right)(4,−3,1).First, we write the augmented matrix.
⎡
⎢
⎣
1
−
1
1
2
3
−
1
3
−
2
−
9
|
8
−
2
9
⎤
⎥
⎦
Next, we perform row operations to obtain row-echelon form.
−
2
R
1
+
R
2
=
R
2
→
⎡
⎢
⎣
1
−
1
1
0
5
−
3
3
−
2
−
9
|
8
−
18
9
⎤
⎥
⎦
−
3
R
1
+
R
3
=
R
3
→
⎡
⎢
⎣
1
−
1
1
0
5
−
3
0
1
−
12
|
8
−
18
−
15
⎤
⎥
⎦
The easiest way to obtain a 1 in row 2 of column 1 is to interchange \displaystyle {R}_{2}R
2
and \displaystyle {R}_{3}R
3
.
Interchange
R
2
and
R
3
→
⎡
⎢
⎣
1
−
1
1
8
0
1
−
12
−
15
0
5
−
3
−
18
⎤
⎥
⎦
Then
−
5
R
2
+
R
3
=
R
3
→
⎡
⎢
⎣
1
−
1
1
0
1
−
12
0
0
57
|
8
−
15
57
⎤
⎥
⎦
−
1
57
R
3
=
R
3
→
⎡
⎢
⎣
1
−
1
1
0
1
−
12
0
0
1
|
8
−
15
1
⎤
⎥
⎦
The last matrix represents the equivalent system.
x
−
y
+
z
=
8
y
−
12
z
=
−
15
z=1
Using back-substitution, we obtain the solution as \displaystyle \left(4,-3,1\right)(4,−3,1).