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olasank [31]
3 years ago
12

You own one call option with an exercise price of $30 on Nadia stock. This stock is currently selling for $27.80 a share but is

expected to increase to either $28 or $34 a share over the next year. The risk-free rate of return is 5 percent. What is the current per share value of your option if it expires in one year
Business
1 answer:
Shalnov [3]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: 0.755

Explanation:

From the information given, the current per share value of the option if it expires in one year will be calculated as follows:

Firstly, we calculate the present value which will be:

= $28 / ( 1 + 0.05 )

= $28/1.05

= $26.667

The number of options needed will be:

= ( 34 - 28 )/ ( 4-0)

= 6/4

= 1.5

Therefore,

27.80 = (1.5 x Co) + [28 / (1+0.05)]

27.80 = 1.5Co + (28/1.05)

27.80 = 1.5Co + 26.667

1.5Co = 28.0 - 26.667

1.5Co = 1.1333

Co = 0.755

Therefore, the answer is 0.755

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For each of the following depreciable assets, determine the missing amount. Abbreviations for depreciation methods are SL for st
makkiz [27]

Answer:

Please check the attached image for the answers

Explanation:

Check the attached image for a clearer image of the table used in answering this question

A.

Cost of asset = c

Useful life = 5

Depreciation expense using the double declining method = Depreciation factor x cost of the asset

Depreciation factor = 2 x (1/useful life)

= 2 × (1/5) = 0.4 = 40%

Because the depreciation factor is 40%, the remaining book value after depreciation would be 60%.

Note that : Book value in year 1 = Cost of asset - Depreciation expense of year 1

Book value in year in subsequent years = previous book value - that year's depreciation expense

The book value in year 2: 0.6c x $51,000

Solve for c = 51,000 / 0.6 = 85,000

So, the book value in year 2 is $85,000

The book value in year 1 which is also the cost of the asset can be found using this equation : (2 / 5 ) x c = $85,000

Solve for c = $85,000 × (5/2) = $212500

The cost of the asset is $212,500

For asset b

Sum of the year Depreciation expense = (number of useful life remaining / sum of useful years) x (Cost of asset - Salvage value)

number of useful life remaining at year 2 = 7

Sum of useful life = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 + 7 + 8 = 36

The equation for year 2 depreciation : (7/36) × ($40,000 - Salvage value) = $7,000

0.194444 × ($40,000 - Salvage value) = $7,000

Make salvage value the subject of the formula and solve

Salvage value = $4,000

For asset c,

Straight line depreciation expense = (Cost of asset - Salvage value) / useful life

Inputting the values given for asset C into the above equation: ($103,000 - $13,000) ÷ useful life = $9,000

= $90,000 / useful life = $9,000

Solve for useful life, useful life = 10 years

For asset D,

To find the depreciation method used , we have to employ trial and error method. We would try all the depreciation methods available and determine which depreciation method would give us the depreciation value of $23,900

I would start with the straight line depreciation method Deprecation method.

Straight line depreciation expense = (Cost of asset - Salvage value) / useful life

= ($268,000-$29,000)/10 = $23,900

From the above calculation, the depreciation method used is the straight line depreciation method.

For asset E,

The 150% declining method = Depreciation factor x cost of the asset

Depreciation factor = 1.5 x (1/useful life)

1.5 x (1/8) = 0.1875

To derive the depreciation expense in year 2, the book value at the beginning of year 2 has to be determined. To determine the year 2 book value, the depreciation expense in year one has to be determined.

Year 1 depreciation expense = 0.1875 x $219,000 = $41,062.50

Year 2 , book value = $219,000 - $41,062.50 = $177,937.50

Depreciation expense in year 2 = 0.1875 x $177,937.50 = $33,363.28

I hope my answer helps you

7 0
3 years ago
Predetermined overhead rates in traditional costing are often based on
sp2606 [1]

Answer:

a) direct labor cost for job order costing and machine hours for process costing.

Explanation:

As we know that the predetermined overhead rate is the rate which is to be computed by considering the total estimated manufacturing overhead cost and the estimated activity level i.e machine hours, etc

Under the traditional costing, in case of job order costing it ts based on direct labor cost while in the process costing it is based on machine hours

Hence, first option is correct

3 0
3 years ago
Direct materials are added at the beginning of the process and conversion costs are incurred uniformly throughout the process. E
ch4aika [34]

Answer:

$4,92

Explanation:

Step 1 Calculate the Total Cost of conversion costs incurred during the process.

<u>Total Cost of conversion costs</u>

Cost of conversion in Beginning inventory  $8,800

Add Cost of conversion for April                  $43,612

Total                                                                $52,412

Step 2 Calculate cost per equivalent unit for conversion costs

cost per equivalent unit = Total Cost of conversion / Total equivalent unit for conversion

                                        = $52,412 / 10,650

                                        = $4,92

Therefore, the cost per equivalent unit for conversion costs using the weighted average method would be $4,92.

5 0
3 years ago
In a nutritious diet, the foods provide sufficient quantities of essential nutrients, fiber, and energy to maintain health and b
Sedbober [7]

Answer:

b. balance

Explanation:

According to my research on studies conducted by various nutritionists, I can say that based on the information provided within the question this principle of diet planning is called balance. This is the process of choosing different ingredients or foods that give you all the necessary essentials needed to maintain a balanced health and body weight.

I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.

7 0
3 years ago
Agency costs faced by MNCs may be larger than those faced by purely domestic firms because: a.monitoring of managers located in
mars1129 [50]

Agency costs faced by MNCs may be larger than those faced by purely domestic firms because:

  • monitoring of managers located in foreign countries is more difficult AND foreign subsidiary managers raised in different cultures may not follow uniform goals.
  • monitoring of managers located in foreign countries is more difficult.
  • .MNCs are relatively large.
  • foreign subsidiary managers raised in different cultures may not follow uniform goals.

<h3>What are multinational corporations?</h3>

Multinational corporations can be regarded as one that have the license to operates in more than one country at a time.

Agency costs faced by MNCs may be larger than those faced by purely domestic firms due to how foreign subsidiary managers raised in different cultures may not follow  uniform goals.

Read more on human capita development here:

https://brainly.in/question/36071285

#SPJ12

8 0
2 years ago
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