Given that <span>Line m is parallel to line n.
We prove that 1 is supplementary to 3 as follows:
![\begin{tabular} {|c|c|} Statement&Reason\\[1ex] Line m is parallel to line n&Given\\ \angle1\cong\angle2&Corresponding angles\\ m\angle1=m\angle2&Deifinition of Congruent angles\\ \angle2\ and\ \angle3\ form\ a\ linear\ pair&Adjacent angles on a straight line\\ \angle2\ is\ supplementary\ to\ \angle3&Deifinition of linear pair\\ m\angle2+m\angle3=180^o&Deifinition of supplementary \angle s\\ m\angle1+m\angle3=180^o&Substitution Property \end{tabular}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cbegin%7Btabular%7D%0A%7B%7Cc%7Cc%7C%7D%0AStatement%26Reason%5C%5C%5B1ex%5D%0ALine%20m%20is%20parallel%20to%20line%20n%26Given%5C%5C%0A%5Cangle1%5Ccong%5Cangle2%26Corresponding%20angles%5C%5C%0Am%5Cangle1%3Dm%5Cangle2%26Deifinition%20of%20Congruent%20angles%5C%5C%0A%5Cangle2%5C%20and%5C%20%5Cangle3%5C%20form%5C%20a%5C%20linear%5C%20pair%26Adjacent%20angles%20on%20a%20straight%20line%5C%5C%0A%5Cangle2%5C%20is%5C%20supplementary%5C%20to%5C%20%5Cangle3%26Deifinition%20of%20linear%20pair%5C%5C%0Am%5Cangle2%2Bm%5Cangle3%3D180%5Eo%26Deifinition%20of%20supplementary%20%5Cangle%20s%5C%5C%0Am%5Cangle1%2Bm%5Cangle3%3D180%5Eo%26Substitution%20Property%0A%5Cend%7Btabular%7D)
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We prove that 1 is supplementary to 3 as follows:
Dont guess! I will mark brainliest if its correct! Also no links!
2 answers:
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Answer:
Steps to Construct a Perpendicular Bisector of line segment are as follows:
Step 1 : Draw the line segment of given
length or any length.
Step 2 : With W as center, using compass, draw a circle ( or two
arcs one above line and one below line ) . The radius of
circle ( or arcs ) should be more than half the length of
.
Step 3 : With the same radius and with X as center, draw
another circle (or arcs) using compass. Let it cut the
previous circle (or arcs) at A and B.
Step 4 : Join . It cuts
at O.
Therefore, is perpendicular bisector of
Answer:
The answer is : $67,266.16
Step-by-step explanation:
This question is a future value question.
As given, Trent puts away 10% of his $32,000 every year and the company will put half amount of $1,600. So, total amount becomes = each year.
Formula for future value or FV is Fv = Pmt (1 + r/n)^(nt) – 1 / (r/n)
Where, Fv = Future Value , Pmt = repeated payments , R = interest rate ,N = total number of payment periods
Putting the values in the formula,
Fv = 4800 (1 + 0.073/1)^(1x10) – 1 (0.073/1)
Fv = $67266.16
Hence, the answer is $67266.16