There are two blue marbles so you have a 2/8 probability of drawing a blue marble on each draw since the marble is replaced after the first draw. 2/8 can be simplified to be 1/4 and then converted to be 0.25 per draw. 0.25 plus 0.25 equals 0.5. Since we are dealing with percentages multiply 0.5 x 100 which equals 50. Now take 50 and divided by the total number of marbles in the bag which is 8. 50 divided by 8 equals 6.25. So it would be about 6%.
<h2><em>If you put and label the three points in a line, you will see that RS + ST = RT.
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</em></h2><h2><em>Then you only need to substitue with the expressions given for RS and ST to find RT.
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</em></h2><h2><em>RT = x +1 + 2x - 2 = 3x - 1
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</em></h2><h2><em>Also, RT = 5x - 5
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</em></h2><h2><em>Then, 3x - 1 = 5x - 5
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</em></h2><h2><em>5x - 3x = 5 - 1
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</em></h2><h2><em>2x = 4
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</em></h2><h2><em>x = 4/2 = 2
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</em></h2><h2><u><em>X=2</em></u></h2>
12×4=48 , 68×12 is a much greater number.
Step-by-step explanation:
$800 × 5% = $40
for 1 year, I earn $40
100 ÷ 40 = 2 remainder 2
Therefore I would have to leave the money in for at least 3 years to earn $100
The answer is D because there is one of the 0 and one of the 9
