The limit from 1 to 2 of the given antiderivative is; -0.19865
<h3>What is the Limit of the Integral?</h3>
We are given the antiderivative of f(x) as sin(1/(x² + 1)). Thus, to find the limit from 1 to 2, we will solve as;
⇒ (sin ¹/₅) - (sin ¹/₂)
⇒ 0.19866 - 0.47942
⇒ -0.19865
Complete Question is;
If sin(1/(x² + 1)) is an anti derivative for f(x), then what is the limit of f(x)dx from 1 to 2?
Read more about integral limits at; brainly.com/question/10268976
In Country A, the opportunity cost of one paper clip is 1/2. Option C
<h3>What is opportunity cost?</h3>The opportunity cost refers to the alternative forgone in production. It means that it is the option that is chosen in the midst of other possibilities.
We can see from the table that in Country A, the opportunity cost of one paper clip is 1/2.
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Missing parts
If countries A and B produce only either rubber bands or paper clips, their maximum outputs are shown in the accompanying production possibilities schedules.
In country A the opportunity cost of 1 paper clip is
A.2 rubber bands.
B.1 rubber band
C.1/2 rubber band.
D.1/4 rubber band.
