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iren2701 [21]
3 years ago
9

Why doesn’t the fact that the "inflation solution" is only a temporary solution stop many developing countries from using it? In

structions: In order to receive full credit, you must make a selection for each option. For correct answer(s), click the box once to place a check mark. For incorrect answer(s), click the option twice to empty the box. check all that apply Governments often feel that they must increase government expenditures or be voted out of office.unanswered The "inflation solution" can be a permanent solution if done correctly.unanswered Central banks in developing countries often do not enjoy full independence, and are used by corrupt governments to finance deficit spending.unanswered Governments act to maintain their positions in power, and often feel that in order to do so, they have no choice but to print more money.unanswered The government is the only actor in the economy that gains from an inflation tax.unanswered
Business
1 answer:
Delvig [45]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Government often feel that they must increase government expenditures or be voted out of office.

Central banks in developing countries often do not enjoy full independence, and are used by corrupt government to finance deficit spending.

Explanation:

Inflation is the decline in purchasing power of a currency. The increase in inflation lead to less spending. Government increase inflation to cease increased money flow in the country. The prices of goods and services are increase in the country when inflation increases.

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OverLord2011 [107]

Answer:

current yield 8.2089552%

YTM = 8.05%

effective annual yield = 4.92%

Explanation:

(A)

current yield = C/P

coupon payment / market price

8.8/107.2 = 0.082089552 = 8.2089552%

(B)

P = \frac{C}{2} \times\frac{1-(1+YTM/2)^{-2t} }{YTM/2} + \frac{CP}{(1+YTM/2)^{2t}}

First par being the present value of the coupon payment and second the redeem of the face value at the end of the bond.

market price 107.2

face value 100

time = 19

rate 8.8%

C = annual coupon payment 100 x 8.8% = 8.8

You solve this using a financial calculation and get the semiannual rate

YTM/2 = 0.040268160

then multiply by 2 to get the annual YTM

0.040268160  x 2 =

YTM = 0.08053632 = 8.05%

(C)

Effective Annual Yield

(1+HPR)^{365/time} -1 = EAY

where:

Holding period return:

\frac{Net \: Return}{Investment} = HPR

In this case:

coupon payment + redem - investment = net return

8.8 * 19 + 100 - 107.2 = 160

160/107.2 = 1.492537313

Then

(1+HPR)^{365/time} -1 = EAY

(1+1.142537313)^{\frac{365}{19\times365}} -1 = EAY

EAY = 0.049242509 = 4.9242509%

8 0
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According to the long-run Phillips Curve:
Oxana [17]

Answer:

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Explanation:

Short run Philips Curve is downward sloping, due to inverse relationship between unemployment rate & inflation rate. High economic activity implies more inflation rate, less unemployment. Low economic activity implies less inflation rate, more unemployment.

However, the inverse relationship between inflation & unemployment is only in short run & not in long run. In long run, this inflation - unemployment trade off doesn't exist. So, any fiscal or monetary policy affecting aggregate demand & consecutively inflation rate, do not affect the natural rate of unemployment (combination of frictional & structural unemployment rate) in long run.

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Benefits: You do not have to carry large amounts of cash with you


drawbacks: You have to pay interest rates
it is technically a loan


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