For one dice 1/6
for the other dice 1/6
it equals 2 /6
which is simplified to 1/3
Answer:
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Answer:
1
Step-by-step explanation:
Given the question above :
The probability distribution :
X : ___ 1 ___ 2 ___ 3 ___ 4 ____ 5
P(x): _ 0.1 __ 0.1 __ 0.6 _ 0.1 __ 0.1
The Variance : Var(X) = (Σx²*p(x)) - μ²
μ = E(X) = Σ(X * p(x)) :
Σ(X * p(x)) = (1*0.1)+(2*0.1)+(3*0.6)+(4*0.1)+(5*0.1)
μ = 3
Var(X): [(1^2*0.1)+(2^2*0.1)+(3^2*0.6)+(4^2*0.1)+(5^2*0.1)] - 3²
= 10 - 9
= 1
Hence. Variance = 1
A graphing calculator can be helpful for these.
A) Since neither inequality includes the "or equal to" case, the boundary line for the solution set is a dashed line. For the first inequality, the shading is above the line; for the second, the shading is below the line. The solution set is points to the right of perpendicular lines with slope -2 and +1/2 through point (2, -1).
B) The point -2, 3 satisfies, neither inequality.
.. 3 > -2(-2) +3 . . . FALSE
.. 3 < 1/2(-2) -2 . . .FALSE
(x - 5) represents the total charge before applying sales tax.