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Sloan [31]
3 years ago
14

Suppose that the national economy is experiencing a recession with an estimated recessionary gap of $10 billion. Congress is con

sidering the use of fiscal policy to ease the recession, and due to current political sentiments, it has determined that the maximum spending increase the government is willing to support is $3 billion. The government wants to make up the remainder of the recessionary gap using tax cuts. If a spending increase of $3 billion is approved and the MPC is 0.6, by how much will taxes need to be reduced to close the remainder of the recessionary gap
Business
1 answer:
77julia77 [94]3 years ago
7 0

The tax that needs to be reduced is $ 4.66 billion

<h2>Further Explanation </h2>

The amount (Deflationary / recessionary) gap = 10 billion - 3 billion = 7 billion

Keynesian Spending Multiplier from government spending

k = \frac{1}{1-MPC} = \frac{1}{1-0.6} = \frac{1}{0.4} = 2.5 or \frac{1}{MPS}

Tax Multiplier from tax

t = \frac{MPC}{1-MPC} = \frac{0.6}{1-0.6} = \frac{0.6}{0.4} = 1.5 or \frac{MPC}{MPS}

Option 1: Increased government spending (Loosening / Expansionary Fiscal Policy) by

GovSpending (Gs) = \frac{Gap}{k} = \frac{7 billion}{2.5} = 2.8 billion

Option 2: Tax is reduced by (-)

Tax = \frac{Gap}{t} = \frac{7 billion}{1.5}  = 4.66 billion

In economics, deflation is a period in which prices generally fall and the value of money increases. Deflation is the opposite of inflation. If inflation occurs due to a large amount of money circulating in the community, deflation occurs due to a lack of money in circulation. One way to overcome deflation is to reduce interest rates.

In the macroeconomy, a recession is a condition when the gross domestic product (GDP) decreases or when real economic growth is negative for two quarters or more in one year. Recession can result in a simultaneous decline in all economic activities such as employment, investment, and corporate profits. Recession is often associated with falling prices (deflation), or, conversely, sharply rising prices (inflation) in a process known as stagflation. The economic recession that lasts long is called economic depression. The drastic decline in the level of the economy (usually due to severe depression, or due to hyperinflation) is called economic bankruptcy (economic collapse). Columnist Sidney J. Harris distinguishes the above terms in this way: "A recession is when a neighbor loses a job; depression is when you lose a job."

Learn More

Deflationary brainly.com/question/13135934

To Reduce Tax brainly.com/question/13135934

Details

Class: College

Subject: Business

Keywords: Deflationary, tax, recessionary

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In a jewelry store, a customer places an order for a piece of jewelry (for example, a silver pin in the shape of a tulip). each
Marizza181 [45]

The best type of system for the order of the jewelry would be:

 

<span>1. </span>A customer chooses what he wants from the jewelry

<span>2. </span>He/she must check if the special jewels that he/she wanted are available for pre-order

<span>3. </span>Once the business agreement is done a transaction shall be followed in the making.

 

<span>Special orders should always be made to be pre-ordered, if the supplier has the item.</span>

6 0
2 years ago
A factory worker earns $500 per week and will receive a $2,000 bonus at year-end, a 2-week paid vacation, and 5 paid holidays. T
Scorpion4ik [409]

Answer:

$70

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Earnings per week = $500

Bonus received per year = $2,000

Paid vacation = 2 weeks

Paid holidays = 5

Now,

Since  the workers have 2 weeks of vacation the fringe benefit will be calculated for 50 weeks  

[as 1 year have 52 weeks, so  52 - 2 weeks = 50 weeks]

Now,

Bonus per week = $2,000 ÷ 50 weeks

= $40 per week

Vacation pay for the year = Earning per week × Total vacation per year

= $500 × 2 weeks =  $1,000

Thus,

Vacation pay per week = $1,000 ÷ 50 weeks

= $20 per week

since there are 5 days working in a week

Holiday pay per day = $500 ÷ 5 days

= $100 per day

Thus,

Total holiday pay for a year =  Holiday pay per day × total holidays per year

= $100 × 5

= $500

Therefore,

Holiday pay per week = $500 ÷ 50 weeks

= $10 per week

Hence,

Combined amount of accrual

= $40 + $20 + $10

= $70

5 0
3 years ago
g You earn $40,221 at your job and must pay 11% of your income in taxes. You then decide to save 8% of your disposable income. H
Yanka [14]

Answer:

The amount left for consumption spending is $32,932.95

Explanation:

The amount left for consumption spending is known as disposable income or take-home pay less savings .The disposable income is the income left after taxes have been paid to relevant tax authority.The computation of amount left for consumption is done below:

Gross income                                           $40,221

Tax at 11%(11%*$40,221)                            ($4424.31 )

Disposable income                                   $35,796.69

Savings at 8% of disposable income

($35,796.69*8%)                                          ($2,863.74)

Amount left for consumption spending     $32,932.95

This is not mean that I have to spend this $32,932.95 during the month, there might some investments  I want to my money on to yield more returns.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
On January 1, 2016, Parker Company issued bonds with a face value of $62,000, a stated rate of interest of 11 percent, and a fiv
nignag [31]

Answer:

Parker Company

a. Amortization Table

Date                                                 Interest        Discount

                            Cash Payment   Expense   Amortization   Carrying Value

January 1, 2016                                                                            $57,639

December 31, 2016    $6,820         $7,493           $673               58,312

December 31, 2017      6,820            7,581               761              59,073

December 31, 2018      6,820           7,679              859             59,932

December 31, 2019     6,820            7,791               971              60,903

December 31, 2020    6,820            7,917            1,097             62,000

b. The carrying value that would appear on the 2019 balance sheet is:

= $60,903.

c. The interest expense that would appear on the 2019 income statement is:

= $7,791.

d. The amount of cash outflow for interest that would appear in the operating activities section of the 2019 statement of cash flows is:

= $6,820.

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Face value of bonds =      $62,000

Proceeds from the issue = 57,639

Bonds discount =                $4,361

Stated rate of interest = 11% paid annually on December 31

Effective rate of interest = 13%

December 31, 2016:

Interest expense =      $7,493 ($57,639 * 13%)

Interest payable =       $6,820 ($62,000 * 11%)

Discount amortization    $673 ($7,493 - $6,820)

Bond value = $58,312 ($57,639 + $672)

December 31, 2017:

Interest expense =     $7,581 ($58,312 * 13%)

Interest payable        $6,820 ($62,000 * 11%)

Discount amortization   $761 ($7,581 - $6,820)

Bond value = $59,073  ($58,312 + $761)

December 31, 2018:

Interest expense =     $7,679 ($59,073 * 13%)

Interest payable        $6,820 ($62,000 * 11%)

Discount amortization $859 ($7,679 - $6,820)

Bond value = $59,932 ($59,073 + $859)

December 31, 2019:

Interest expense =     $7,791 ($59,932 * 13%)

Interest payable        $6,820 ($62,000 * 11%)

Discount amortization  $971 ($7,791 - $6,820)

Bond value = $60,903 ($59,932 + $971)

December 31, 2020:

Interest expense =         $7,917 ($60,903 * 13%)

Interest payable           $6,820 ($62,000 * 11%)

Discount amortization  $1,097 ($7,917 - $6,820)

Bond value = $62,000 ($60,903 + $1,097)

3 0
2 years ago
1. Keira’s Kitchen Company presented the following data: Net Income $2,500,000 Preferred Stock, 50,000 shares outstanding, $100
GarryVolchara [31]

Answer:

Earnings Per Share (EPS) = $1.18

Explanation:

We know,

Earnings Per Share (EPS) = \frac{Net Income - Preferred Dividend}{No. of shares outstanding}

Here,

Net Income = $2,500,000

Preferred Dividend = Total preferred stock in dollar x cost of preferred stock

Preferred Dividend = $5,000,000 x 8% = $400,000

No. of shares outstanding table is shown below (Weighted):

Shares outstanding + Additional shares - Treasury stock =

[750,000 x stock split] + [300,000 x (8/12) x stock split] - [150,000 x (5/12) x stock split]

= (750,000 x 2) + (200,000 x 2) - (62,500 x 2)

= 1,500,000 + 400,000 - 125,000

= 1,775,000

Now, EPS = \frac{2,500,000 - 400,000}{1,775,000}

EPS = 1.18 (rounded to 2 decimal places)

<em>Note:</em> 1. As, there is a stock split of 2-for-1, that's why we multiply the stock by 2.

2. Since additional shares are issued on 1st May, therefore, the weight from May to December is for 8 months. Repurchased or Treasury stock should be removed from number of shares.

7 0
3 years ago
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