Answer:
http://www.mrbartonmaths.com/resources/GCSE%20Revision/GCSE%20Maths%20Takeaway/4.%20Grades%20B%20to%20A-star/107.pdf
Explanation:
THis is published by me....
Answer:
A) I only
Explanation:
We can conclude that bank A will be more profitable than bank B since ROA is a measurement of profitability, and if the banks are operating in a similar manner (both interest income to asset ratios and noninterest income to asset ratios are similar), then the bank with the highest ROA is the most profitable one.
Answer:
$60,000
Explanation:
Since Bailey Co. changed their accounting for insurance expense from the cash-basis to the accrual-basis in the current year, and in January of the prior year, Bailey recorded insurance expense of $240,000 for the cash purchase of a four-year insurance policy.
Bailey should report the insurance transaction in the current year's financial statements of an amortization of the insurance expense over the four year period, and take account the portion that pertains to the current year.
Therefore = $240,000 / 4 years = $60,000 per year
Answer:
$13,640 Unfavorable
Explanation:
Data provided
Actual hours = 2,600
Standard hours = 6.0
Standard variable overhead rate = $12.40
The computation of variable overhead efficiency variance is shown below:-
Variable overhead efficiency variance = (Actual hours - Standard hours) × Standard rate
= (2,600 - (250 × 6.0)) × $12.40
= (2,600 - 1,500) × $12.40
= 1,100 × $12.40
= $13,640 Unfavorable
Therefore for computing variable overhead efficiency variance we simply applied the above formula.
