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2 years ago

Explain the disadvantage of accounting

2 answers:

4 0

Not Guarantee of accuracy: Accounting recorded all the financial transactions with the past value. ...
Real Value of items: The financial account does not show the real value of assets. ...
Accounting Ignores Qualitative Element: It recorded all the financial transaction which are in the monetary form.

konstantin123 [22]2 years ago

4 0

Answer:

it can make youlife stressful

Explanation:

because its so much work

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Casey Klemons' agreement (BELO plan) with his employer provides for a pay rate of $16.50 per hour with a maximum of 50 hour. How

KatRina [158]

Answer:

$907.50

Explanation:

Calculation for How much would Klemons be paid for a week in which he worked 46 hours

Amount to paid =(10 × 0.5 × $16.50)+(50× $16.50

Amount to paid=$82.50 + $825

Amount to paid=$907.50

Therefore the amount that Klemons should be paid for a week in which he worked 46 hours is $907.50

8 0

3 years ago

Your firm is thinking about investing $200 comma 000200,000 in the overhaul of a manufacturing cell in a lean environment. Reve

Zepler [3.9K]

Answer:

EAW = -$17,545.71

Explanation:

initial investment = $200,000

cash inflows;

Year 1 = $33,000
Year 2 = $44,000
Year 3 = $55,000
Year 4 = $66,000
Year 5 = $77,000
Year 6 = $88,000
Year 7 = $99,000
Year 8 = $110,000
Year 9 = $132,000

cash outflows:

Year 1 = $20,000
Year 2 = $30,000
Year 3 = $40,000
Year 4 = $50,000
Year 5 = $60,000
Year 6 = $70,000
Year 7 = $80,000
Year 8 = $90,000
Year 9 = $100,000

EAW = equivalent annual worth = equivalent annual benefits - equivalent annual costs

to determine the EAB we must first find the PV of the cash inflows using a financial calculator = $408,348.84

EAB = (PV x r) / [1 - (1 + r)⁻ⁿ] = ($408,348.84 x 10%) / [1 - (1 + 10%)⁻⁹] = $70,905.91

to determine the EAC we must first find the PV of the cash outflows (including initial outlay) using a financial calculator = $509,395

EAC = (PV x r) / [1 - (1 + r)⁻ⁿ] = ($509,395 x 10%) / [1 - (1 + 10%)⁻⁹] = $88,451.62

EAW = $70,905.91 - $88,451.62 = -$17,545.71

5 0

3 years ago

Atlarge Inc. owns 30% of the outstanding voting common stock of Ticker Co. and has the ability to significantly influence the in

dem82 [27]

Answer:

C. $22,672

B. $413,872

Explanation:

a. The computation of Amount realized by Ticker is shown below:-

Unrealized profit = (48,000 - $28,800) × 25% × 30%

= $19,200 × 25% × 30%

= $1,440

Unrealized profit from Additional sales = ($60,000 - $33,600) × 40% × 30%

= $26,400 × 40% × 30%

= $3,168

Ownership Interest = (Earned income × Outstanding percentage) + Unrealized profit - (Investment + Unrealized profit from Additional sales)

= (108,000 × 30%) + $1,440 - ($8,000 + $3,618)

= $32,400 + $1,440 - $11,618

= $22,672

b. The computation of balance in the Investment is given below:-

Balance of investment = Investment + Interest - Dividend

= $402,000 + $22,672 - ($36,000 × 30)

= $402,000 + $22,672 - $10,800

= $413,872

6 0

2 years ago

If the expected path of 1-year interest rates over the next five years is 2 percent, 4 percent, 1 percent, 4 percent, and 3 perc

timofeeve [1]

Answer:A) one year

Explanation: The unbiased expectations theory, also known as the expectation theory aims to estimate how much the short term interest rates will amount to in future. This is based on long term interest rates. Forward rates are used to predict the value of interests in the future based on the values calculated today. A maturity of 1 year has the lowest interest rate because it is not given enough time to grow. Interest rates tend to grow better over a longer period of time. Therefore in terms of expectation theory the longer the maturity the better the chances of interest rate growth.

6 0

3 years ago

With negotiated transfer pricing, what is the minimum transfer price if operating at capacity? What is the minimum transfer pric

dezoksy [38]

Answer:

Minimum transfer price when operating at capacity is the marginal cost + opportunity cost

Maximum transfer price is marginal cost only, when not operating at capacity.

Explanation:

Minimum transfer price when operating at capacity is the marginal cost + opportunity cost because when operating at capacity there are 2 elements involved - the cost at which it has made the units it will be transferring to another department within the organisation, and the profit it would have made if it had sold those units to others (opportunity cost)

Maximum transfer price is marginal cost only, when not operating at capacity because the department is constrained, it can only produce for the satisfaction of internal demand, not external customers; hence there is no case of opportunity costs.

8 0

2 years ago

Explain the disadvantage of accounting​

Explain the disadvantage of accounting