When a customer with a balance due in accounts receivable makes a payment, it is recorded in the receive payments window.

A local bank’s advertising reads: "Give us $50,000 today, and we’ll pay you $800 every year forever." If you plan to live foreve

Natalka [10]

Answer:

The correct response is Option b (1.60%).

Explanation:

According to the question,

Initial investment,

= $50,000

Perpetual annual cash flows,

= $800

Now,

The interest rate will be:

= $\frac{Perpetual \ annul \ cash \ flows}{Initial \ investment}$

On substituting the given values, we get

= $\frac{800}{50,000}$

= $0.016$

i.e.,

= $1.60 \ percent$

5 0

2 years ago

Which of the following provides for a reduction in the employer's state unemployment tax rate based on the employer's experience

statuscvo [17]

Answer:

b.Experience-rating plan

Explanation:

Experience rating is a method of evaluating used by insurance providers to adjust premiums up or down. The rating reflects your previous loss experience. It is based on the presumption that your historical loss experience predicts your future loss experience. In other words, your future losses are likely to be similar to those you incurred in the past. The Experience Rating Plan is mandatory for all eligible insureds. Any action taken in any form to evade the application of an experience modification determined in accordance with this Plan is prohibited. The object of the Experience Rating Plan is to recognize the differences between individual insureds through the use of the individual insured's own loss experience. The experience rating process serves as a means of using a history of past losses to predict the future losses of an insured.

This is done by comparing the experience of an individual insured to the average insured in the same classification. Therefore, using the insured's past experience, the experience modification is determined by comparing the actual losses to expected losses. An insured with better than average experience will produce a credit experience modification factor, while an insured with worse than average experience will produce a debit experience modification factor. A credit experience modification factor, less than 1.00, results in a premium reduction. A debit experience modification factor, greater than 1.00, results in a premium increase. An experience modification factor of 1.00, or unity, does not change premium.

6 0

2 years ago

Jensen Co. expects to pay €50,000 in one month for its imports from France. It also expects to receive €200,000 for its exports

Julli [10]

Answer:

-$5,873

Explanation:

For computation of maximum one month loss in dollars first we need to find out the net exposure and maximum one month loss in percentage which is shown below:-

Net exposure = Received amount - Paid amount

= €200,000 - €50,000

= €150,000

Maximum one - month loss in Percentage = Next month percentage - (Alpha × Euro percentage)

= 2% - (1.96 × 2.5%)

= -2.9%

Maximum one - month loss in Dollars = Net exposure × Current spot rate of the euro × Maximum one - month loss in Percentage

= €150,000 × $1.35 × (-0.029)

= -$5,873

5 0

2 years ago

For studying demand relationships for a proposed new product that no one has ever used before, what would be the best method to

dolphi86 [110]

Answer:

the answer is D) all of the above are equally useful in this case

Explanation:

why? every company who is planing to offers a new good or product its important to know to which market you want to sell it, and the average age, either the company who had been working with the same product, perhaps more capacity of production in the same market, you have to do a market strategy to know if you are able to get into the new market.

5 0

3 years ago

The winner of the first annual Tom Morris Golf Invitational won $105 in the competition which was held in 1899. In 2015, the win

antoniya [11.8K]

$25968406.94.

a. Computation of Effective Interest Rate

Future Value = Present Value * (1 + r)^n

Future Value = $1460000

Present Value = $105

n = Number of Years = 116 Years

Future Value = Present Value * (1 + r)^n

1460000 = 105 * (1 + r)^116

13904.76 = (1 + r)^116

1.0857 = 1 + r

Effective Interest Rate = 8.57%

b.Future Value in the year 2050

Future Value = Present Value * (1 + r)^n

Present Value = $1460000

n = Number of Years = 35 Years

Future Value = Present Value * (1 + r)^n

Future Value = 1460000 * (1 + 0.0857)^35

Future Value = 1460000 * 17.7866

Future Value in the year 2050= $25968406.94.

Learn more about interest rates at

brainly.com/question/25793394

#SPJ2

5 0

1 year ago