10x10x10 which is 1000 have a great day
Answer:
Part A: YES, it is.
Part B: the amount of pumpkin picked and the amount of fertilizer applied.
Step-by-step explanation:
Part A:
The closer the correlation coefficient is to 1, the stronger the relationship between two variables, and vice versa. Also, the closer the data points are on a scatter plot, the closer the correlation coefficient is to 1.
The scatter plot shown indicates a positive correlation between number of days and number of pumpkins. However, the data points are to some extent farther apart from each other. This shows a moderate relationship between the two variables. Therefore, a correlation coefficient, r, of 0.51 that was calculated can be concluded to be accurate , because an r of 0.51 depicts a moderate relationship between two variables.
Part B:
A variable that could affect the number of pumpkins picked could be amount of fertilizer applied, instead of the day in October. Thus, we can compare the amount of pumpkin picked and the amount of fertilizer applied.
<u>Answer:</u>
<em>Option D : $153</em>
<u>This is how I got that:</u>
9:30 AM to 1:15 PM = 3 hours and 45 minutes
The first hour charges $15 and for the remaining 2 hours and 45 minutes
Mr. Anand is charged 36$. Remember it says that each additional hour <em>or part thereof, </em>so the 2 hours and 45 minutes is considered 3 hours.
So our total for one paddle boat is <u>$51 </u>
<u />
But Mr. Anand hired <em>three</em> boats so we simply times 51 by 3 and get our solution to the problem:
<u>Mr. Anand must pay $153 or Option D</u>
<u></u>
<em>~That's All Folks~</em>
<em>-Siascon</em>
Answer:
The Taylor series of f(x) around the point a, can be written as:

Here we have:
f(x) = 4*cos(x)
a = 7*pi
then, let's calculate each part:
f(a) = 4*cos(7*pi) = -4
df/dx = -4*sin(x)
(df/dx)(a) = -4*sin(7*pi) = 0
(d^2f)/(dx^2) = -4*cos(x)
(d^2f)/(dx^2)(a) = -4*cos(7*pi) = 4
Here we already can see two things:
the odd derivatives will have a sin(x) function that is zero when evaluated in x = 7*pi, and we also can see that the sign will alternate between consecutive terms.
so we only will work with the even powers of the series:
f(x) = -4 + (1/2!)*4*(x - 7*pi)^2 - (1/4!)*4*(x - 7*pi)^4 + ....
So we can write it as:
f(x) = ∑fₙ
Such that the n-th term can written as:

I think it would be 3 because if you divide 18/6=3