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tigry1 [53]
3 years ago
8

Is 4/3 and 8/6 a proportion

Mathematics
2 answers:
FrozenT [24]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

yes they are

when you multiply 4 x 2 you get 8 and when you divide 3 x 2 you get 6

Alexus [3.1K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

yes

Step-by-step explanation:

If you divide one into the other and the answer is 1 then they are of the same ratio.

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Yes, y = 146

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On a map with a scale of 1 in. = 30 miles, the distance between Tarreytown and Hillville is 4 1/2 in. What is the actual distanc
Anit [1.1K]

The distance between the two towns is 75 miles.

<h3>What is the actual distance between the towns to the nearest mile?</h3>

We know that the scale of the map is 1 inch to 30 miles, this means that any measure that we get in inches in the map, should be multiplied by 30 to get the real measure in miles.

In this case, we know that in the map, the distance between the two towns is (4 + 1/2) inches.

Then the real distance in miles is given by:

d = (4 + 1/2)*30mi = 60mi + 15mi = 75mi

The distance between the two towns is 75 miles.

If you want to learn more about changes of scale

brainly.com/question/15891755

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3 0
1 year ago
Using the information above regarding the proportion of agenda-less meetings, choose the correct conclusion for this hypothesis
r-ruslan [8.4K]

Answer: There is sufficient evidence to conclude that the proportion of agenda-less meetings is greater than 45%.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: H_0:p=0.45 \\ H_a:p>0.45

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The level of significance is α=0.05

As p-value< α  ∵0.025< 0.05

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i.e. We have sufficient evidence to support the alternative hypothesis.

Hence, the correct statement is : There is sufficient evidence to conclude that the proportion of agenda-less meetings is greater than 45%.

8 0
3 years ago
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