Answer:
9,556
Step-by-step explanation:
40% of 40
10% of 40 is 4
4 x 4=16
40-16 =24
Answer is 24
Answer:
0.3891 = 38.91% probability that only one is a second
Step-by-step explanation:
For each globet, there are only two possible outcoes. Either they have cosmetic flaws, or they do not. The probability of a goblet having a cosmetic flaw is independent of other globets. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

In which
is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

And p is the probability of X happening.
17% of its goblets have cosmetic flaws and must be classified as "seconds."
This means that 
Among seven randomly selected goblets, how likely is it that only one is a second
This is P(X = 1) when n = 7. So


0.3891 = 38.91% probability that only one is a second
The most used payment plan to avoid being in debt today is the 20% payment plan. In this payment , you divide your income into several parts.
20% for paying up debts, 10 % for savings, and 70% for everything else.
So, assuming that x is the minimum amount of money, we know that
$ 512 + $70 = 20% . X
$ 582 = 0.2 . x
$ 582 / 0.2 = x
x = $ 2910
Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:


Compute general progression:




nth term is computed by:

plug in the values
:

