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Mama L [17]
3 years ago
6

Which of the following best describes how the y values are changing over each interval? x y 1 20 2 40 3 80 4 160 5 320 They are

increasing by 20 each time. They are increasing by 40 each time. They are being multiplied by 2 each time. They are being multiplied by 4 each time.
Mathematics
2 answers:
aniked [119]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

They are being multiplied by 2 each time.

Step-by-step explanation:

MAVERICK [17]3 years ago
4 0
<h3>Answer</h3>

They are being multiplied by 2 each time.

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What is the volume of the rectangular prism? :3
White raven [17]

Answer:

729/8

Step-by-step explanation:

4 1/2 * 4 1/2 * 4 1/2 = (9/2)^3 = 729/8

4 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
State the leading coefficient of the polynomial:<br> f(x) = 6x^5 + 9x^4 + 2x^3 + 3x^2 - 4x -6
dlinn [17]

Answer:

The leading coefficient of the polynomial is 5 .

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x) = 6x^5 + 9x^4 + 2x^3 + 3x^2 - 4x -6

In this polynomial , the highest exponential is the leading coefficient .

So there are 5 coefficients ,

5 , 4 , 3 , 2 , and x

so above , the highest one is 5 .

4 0
3 years ago
I need help, WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST IF RIGHT. i need it in percents
atroni [7]

Answer:

2.)   33.33%

3.)   50%

Step-by-step explanation:

There is only one 5 and only one 2. There are 6 sides. The fraction is 2/6, and as a percent it's 33.33%.

There are 3 even numbers and three odd numbers. The chance of getting an even then an odd would be 3/6, or 50%.

8 0
4 years ago
a slitter assembly contains 48 blades five blades are selected at random and evaluated each day for sharpness if any dull blade
12345 [234]

Answer:

P(at least 1 dull blade)=0.7068

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps.

This is what it's called dependent event probability, with the added condition that at least 1 out of 5 blades picked is dull, because from your selection of 5, you only need one defective to decide on replacing all.

So if you look at this from another perspective, you have only one event that makes it so you don't change the blades: that 5 out 5 blades picked are sharp. You also know that the probability of changing the blades plus the probability of not changing them is equal to 100%, because that involves all the events possible.

P(at least 1 dull blade out of 5)+Probability(no dull blades out of 5)=1

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-P(no dull blades)

But the event of picking one blade is dependent of the previous picking, meaning there is no chance of picking the same blade twice.

So you have 38/48 on getting a sharp one on your first pick, then 37/47 (since you remove 1 sharp from the possibilities, and 1 from the whole lot), and so on.

Also since are consecutive events, you need to multiply the events.

The probability that the assembly is replaced the first day is:

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-P(no dull blades)

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-(\frac{38}{48}* \frac{37}{47} *\frac{36}{46}*\frac{35}{45}*\frac{34}{44})

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-0.2931

P(at least 1 dull blade)=0.7068

6 0
3 years ago
Factor out 10d^7 + 2d^5
alexdok [17]

Answer:

2 {d}^{5} (5 {d}^{2}  + 1)

Step-by-step explanation:

10d^7 + 2d^5 \\  \\  = 2 {d}^{5} (5 {d}^{2}  + 1)

7 0
3 years ago
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