You must simplify it to find the answer. You get 2 over 1 which equals just 2.
We let the number of years that the two jobs will have the same payment be denoted as t. Equating the wages of these two jobs after t - 1 years will give us an equation of,
22,000 + 4000(t -1) = 26,000 + 2000(t - 1)
The value of t from the generated equation is 3. Therefore, after 3 years the jobs will be paying the same wages.
If my math is correct B or C is what it comes down to
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation: