Answer:
See explanation
Step-by-step explanation:
<h3 /><h3>Step 1</h3>
Miguel wins $2 is if he pulls two chips with the number 1.
<u>Probability of winning is:
</u>
- 2/4 * 1/3 = 1/6 as there are 4 chips in total
<u>
Probability of loosing is:</u>
<h3 /><h3>Step 2</h3>
<u>Missing values we found in the step 1, can be populated in the table:</u>
- Xi === 2 === -1
- P(Xi) === 1/6 === 5/6
<u>Expected Value as per table data:</u>
Expected value is $1/2 loss each time he plays
<h3 /><h3>Step 3</h3>
To make the game fair, the expected value should be zero.
<u>Then as per the calculation above, let's replace 2, with x, and find its value.</u>
- 1/6x + 5/6*(-1) = 0
- 1/6x = 5/6
- x= 5
So the amount should be $5 to make the game fair.
Answer:
y=0.
y + 6 = -4(X - 1.5)
y+6 = -4x+6
y = mx+b
y=4x
There isn't a b, which is the y intercept, so the y int would be 0
Answer:
(12,0), (3, -1) (0,-4/3)
Step-by-step explanation:
To do this problem, you have to plug in the x and y values. For example, the first one would be 12-9(0)=12, and so on.
A^2 + 16^2 = 20^2
(Third one)
100$×0.05= 5 $ is her annual interest
qusetion number 1 . 5$× 6 years = 30 $
for question number 2 . 100$+30$=130$