Answer:
86
Step-by-step explanation:
let four consecutive integers: n , n+1 , n+2 , n+3
n + n+1 + n+2 + n+3 = 342
4n + 6 = 342
4n + 6 - 6 = 342 - 6
4n = 336
divid by : 4
n = 84
but the third term is : n +2 so : 84+2 = 86
The value of x would be 15 because there are 3
Answer:
i think its c.distributive
Answer:
B. The count of drawing a red ball is a binomial distribution.
Step-by-step explanation:
The count of drawing a red ball can be gotten by binomial distribution because:
the chance of success; p = 26/50 and chance of no failure; q = 24/50
For example, If we want to find probability of getting 5 red balls out of 20 selections, we will use the binomial probability distribution formula;
P(X = 5) = C(20, 5) × p^(5) × q^(20 - 5)
This same procedure also applies if we want to get the probability of getting a number of yellow balls out of a number of selections from the bag.
Looking at the options, the best option that explains how it's binomial probability that works is option B
I=PRT
I= 1950*0.05*4
I=390
Therefore, the simple interest is 390