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Dahasolnce [82]
3 years ago
12

2 5/6 divided by 3 1/4 please explain .

Mathematics
2 answers:
Leviafan [203]3 years ago
4 0
2 5/6 divided by 3 1/4 is like multiplying.
You turn both mixed fractions into improper fractions. Then flip 13/4 into 4/13 and multiply. I’m sorry if this doesn’t make sense.

17/6 x 13/4 to 17/6 x 4/13

17/6 x 4/13 = 68/78 = 34/39
Debora [2.8K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

\frac{34}{39}

Step-by-step explanation:

2\frac{5}{6} can be rewritten as \frac{17}{6}

3\frac{1}{4} can be rewritten as \frac{13}{4}

So now

\frac{17}{6} / \frac{13}{4}

Flip the second fraction and multiply

\frac{17}{6} * \frac{4}{13} = \frac{68}{78}

Now reduce the fraction

\frac{34}{39}

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If 2(4x+3)-12=3x-6, then what value of x makes the equation true? Answer with supporting work:
nika2105 [10]
Multiply 2 to (4x+3)


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bring the x to one side

5x=0


isolate for x

x=0
7 0
4 years ago
Which equation does not represent a linear function of x?
Natasha_Volkova [10]
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Meanwhile any function whose degree (highest exponent of x) is one is a linear function. It will have be a straight line.
5 0
4 years ago
A winning football team more than doubled. The offensive yards gained by its opponent. The opponent gained 272 offensive yards.
Daniel [21]

Answer:

80x>2*272

More than 6.8 yards per game.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let x be the possible number of yards per play for the winning team.

We have been given that the winning team had 80 offensive plays, so the number of possible yards in 80 offensive plays will be 80x.

We have been given that a winning football team more than doubled the offensive yards gained by its opponent.

We can represents this information in an inequality as:

80x>2*272

Therefore, the inequality 80x>2*272 can be used to find the possible number of x of yards per play for the winning team.

Let us solve for x.

80x>544

Let us divide both sides of our inequality by 80.

\frac{80x}{80}>\frac{544}{80}

x>6.8

Therefore, the winning team will score more than 6.8 yards per play.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Jodi is cutting out pieces of paper that measures 8 1/2 inches by 11 inches from a larger sheet of paper that has an area of 100
Misha Larkins [42]

Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation:

The possible dimensions of the larger piece of paper that could give us 1000 square inches for area are:

1×1000; 2×500; 4×250; 5×200; 8×125; 10×100; 20×50; 25×40

We want to use dimensions that will allow us to cut 8 1/2 by 11 sheets.  This means that the smallest dimension needs to be larger than 8 1/2 inches; this leaves us with

10×100; 20×50; 25×40

For the first one, 10×100, we can have 1 row across the 10 inch dimension, and 100/11 = 9 columns across the other dimension.  This gives us 1×9 = 9 sheets.

For the 20×50, we can have 2 rows across the 10 inch dimension and 50/11 = 4 columns; this gives us 2×4 = 8 sheets.

For the 25×40, we can have 2 rows across the 25 inch dimension (we lack half an inch of having 3) and 40/11 = 3 columns; this gives us 2×3 = 6 sheets.

The largest number of sheets was 9.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
3 times the sum of x and y squared plus 5 times the difference of 2x and y
Virty [35]
3x + xy^2 + 5x - 2xy     ok so once you can decode the sentence this is what it will look like.    First you add the common facts which are 3x and 5x which = 8x ok so now we have 8x + xy^2 - 2xy so then I believe you cant do anything after that because there will be no more common factors hey can you tell me if I am write if you have already had turn this in please hope this helps 
8 0
4 years ago
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