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3 years ago

What is the probability of rolling a number greater than or equal to 8 with the

Mathematics

1 answer:

Natasha2012 [34]3 years ago

8 0

<h3>Answer: 5/18</h3>

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Explanation:

I'll represent the dice results as an ordered pair. Something like (6,2) means the first die is a 6 and the second is a 2. The sum being 6+2 = 8.

There are only two ways to get to a sum of 8, and those two ways are:

(6,2)
(2,6)

Here are other possibilities if we allow the sum to be larger than 8

(6,3)
(6,4)
(6,5)
(6,6)
(3,6)
(4,6)
(5,6)
(6,6)

You should find that there are a total of 10 ways to have two dice add to a value that is 8 or larger, given that at least one of the dice must be a 6.

This is out of 6*6 = 36 ways to roll two dice without such a restriction. The probability we're after is 10/36 = (2*5)/(2*18) = 5/18

Side note: 5/18 = 0.2778 = 27.78% approximately

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Kiran says that a solution to the equation x+4=20 must also be a solution to the equation 5(x+4)=100 Write a convincing explanat

Helen [10]

Answer:

x+4=20 is a solution to 5(x+4)=100.

Step-by-step explanation:

Following PEMDAS, divide 5 from both sides of the equation 5(x+4)=100, and you have x+4=20 remaining.

This means that both equations have the same solution.

8 0

3 years ago

Can someone plz help plz show work

aliya0001 [1]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

In the base we have the right triangle. Use the Pythagorean theorem for to calculate the hypotenuse:

$h^2=4^2+3^2\\\\h^2=16+9\\\\h^=25\to h=\sqrt{25}\\\\h=5\ ft$

The Lateral Area is the sum of the areas of three rectangles:

$4\ ft\ \times\ 2\ ft\to A_1=(4)(2)=8\ ft^2\\\\3\ ft\ \times\ 2\ ft\to A_2=(3)(2)=6\ ft^2\\\\5\ ft\ \times\ 2\ \ft\to A_3=(5)(2)=10\ ft^2$

The Lateral Area:

$LA=A_1+A_2+A_3\to LA=8+6+10=24\ ft^2$

8 0

3 years ago

A set of a thousand numbers has a mean of zero.

Alona [7]

We want to find the mean of two elements in a set, given that we know the other elements of the set and the mean of the whole set.

The answer is: -490

-----------------------------

For a set with N elements {x₁, x₂, ..., xₙ} the mean is given by:

$M = \frac{x_1 + x_2 + ... + x_n}{N}$

Here we know that:

The mean of the set is 0.
The set has 1000 elements.
998 of these elements are ones, the other two are A and B.

We want to find the mean of the values of A and B.

First, we can start by writing the equation for the mean:

$\frac{1 + 1 + 1 + ... A + B}{1000} = 0$

We can rewrite this as:

$1 + 1 + 1 +... + A + B = 0$

And we have 998 ones, then:

$1 + 1 + 1 +... + A + B = 998 + A + B = 0\\\\B = - 998 - A$

Now we have B isolated.

With this, the mean of A and B can be written as:

$\frac{A + B}{2} = \frac{A - 980 - A}{2} = -490$

So we can conclude that the mean of the other two numbers is -490.

If you want to learn more, you can read:

brainly.com/question/22871228

5 0

2 years ago

Drag a reason to each box to complete the proof.<br> Please help <br> will give you brainliest

Helga [31]

Answer:

The required proof is shown below.

Step-by-step explanation:

Consider the provided figure.

It is given that KM=LN

We need to prove KL=MN

Now consider the provided statement.

KM = LN Given

KM = KL+LM Segment addition postulate

LN = LM+MN Segment addition postulate

KL+LM = LM+MN Substitution property of equality

KL = MN Subtraction property of equality

The required proof is shown above.

3 0

3 years ago

Which of the following equations is an example of inverse variation between

Romashka [77]

For this case we have that by definition, a direct variation is given by:

$y = kx$

Where:

k: It is the constant of proportionality of the variables.

On the other hand, we have that the inverse variation is given by:

$y = \frac {k} {x}$

Where:

k: It is the constant of proportionality of the variables.

In this way, the correct option is: $y = \frac {9} {x}$

ANswer:

Option A

3 0

3 years ago

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