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ad-work [718]
3 years ago
5

I need help plz .........................

Mathematics
2 answers:
pshichka [43]3 years ago
6 0
It’s A, the hours are the independent variable and equal x, gallons are dependent and equal x, then you plug in the numbers 5=(1.5*2)+ 2 and if its equivalent than it’s correct.
Mariulka [41]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:i would say c or a

Step-by-step explanation:

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AHHHHH HELP IM NOT A MATH KID
sergij07 [2.7K]

Answer:

y = 6

x = 200

Quick Explanation:

The horizontal arrowed line labeled <em>t</em> would be the <em>y </em>axis, and according to the dot on the graph, it's on the 6. The vertical arrowed line labeled <em>h </em>would be the <em>x </em>axis, and the dot tells you the number is 200. Easy peasy, just remember the <em>x </em>axis is vertical and the <em>y</em> axis is horizontal and it'll help you find the location of any dot.

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The point (-7, -24) is on the terminal ray of angle θ which is in standard position. A student found the six trigonometric value
12345 [234]

Answer:

the first one

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
a slitter assembly contains 48 blades five blades are selected at random and evaluated each day for sharpness if any dull blade
son4ous [18]

Answer:

P(at least 1 dull blade)=0.7068

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps.

This is what it's called dependent event probability, with the added condition that at least 1 out of 5 blades picked is dull, because from your selection of 5, you only need one defective to decide on replacing all.

So if you look at this from another perspective, you have only one event that makes it so you don't change the blades: that 5 out 5 blades picked are sharp. You also know that the probability of changing the blades plus the probability of not changing them is equal to 100%, because that involves all the events possible.

P(at least 1 dull blade out of 5)+Probability(no dull blades out of 5)=1

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-P(no dull blades)

But the event of picking one blade is dependent of the previous picking, meaning there is no chance of picking the same blade twice.

So you have 38/48 on getting a sharp one on your first pick, then 37/47 (since you remove 1 sharp from the possibilities, and 1 from the whole lot), and so on.

Also since are consecutive events, you need to multiply the events.

The probability that the assembly is replaced the first day is:

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-P(no dull blades)

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-(\frac{38}{48}* \frac{37}{47} *\frac{36}{46}*\frac{35}{45}*\frac{34}{44})

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-0.2931

P(at least 1 dull blade)=0.7068

5 0
3 years ago
What is 9 to the 4 power plus 3 to the 3rd power equal?
Shalnov [3]
9^4 + 3^3
= 9•9•9•9 + 3•3•3
= 6,561 + 27
= 6,588
6 0
3 years ago
Which measurement is closest to the measure of segment W Z?
noname [10]
Like XZ divides the cord YV into two congruent parts (YW=5.27 cm=WV), this segment XZ must be perpendicular to the segment YV, then the angle XWY in triangle XWY is a right angle (90°) and the triangle XWY is a right angle.

We can apply the trigonometric ratios in triangle XWY:
Hypotenure: XY
sin 44°=(Opposite leg to 44°)/(hypothenuse)
sin 44°=YW/XY
sin 44°=(5.27 cm)/XY
Solving for XY. Cross multiplication:
sin44° XY=5.27 cm
Dividing both sides of the equation by sin 44°:
sin 44° XY / sin 44° = (5.27 cm)/sin 44°
XY=(5.27/sin 44°) cm
XY=(5.27/0.694658370) cm
XY=7.586462929 cm

This value XY is the radius of the circle, then:
XZ=XY→XZ=7.586462969 cm

tan 44°=(Opposite leg to 44°) / (Adjacent leg to 44°)
tan 44°=YW/XW
tan 44°=(5.27 cm)/XW
Solving for XW. Cross multiplication:
tan 44° XW=5.27 cm
Dividing both sides of the equation by tan 44°:
tan 44° XW / tan 44°=(5.27 cm)/tan 44°
XW=(5.27/tan 44°) cm
XW=(5.27/0.965688775) cm
XW=5.457244753 cm

WZ=XZ-XW
WZ=7.586462969 cm-5.457244753 cm
WZ=2.129218216 cm
Rounded to 2 decimal places:
WZ=2.13 cm

Answer: The <span>measurement is closest to the measure of segment WZ is
2.13 cm</span>
6 0
3 years ago
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