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3 years ago

Algebra 2 L.3 Multiply polynomials BGN

Mathematics

1 answer:

Roman55 [17]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

x² + 4x

Step-by-step explanation:

Area of the rectangle = length × width

length = x + 4

width = x

Therefore,

Area = x(x + 4)

Area = x*x + x*4

x² + 4x

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Angles X and Y are supplementary. Angle X is 3 times the measure of angle Y. What is the measure of angle X?

never [62]

Answer:

∠ Y = 45°, ∠ X = 135°

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the 2 angles are supplementary, then

X + Y = 180 ← substitute X = 3Y

3Y + Y = 180, that is

4Y = 180 ( divide both sides by 4 )

Y = 45

and

X + Y = 180, so

X + 45 = 180 ( subtract 45 from both sides )

X = 135

Thus

∠ X = 135° and ∠ Y = 45°

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Tanner has a budgeted no more than $20 a month for entertainment and an additional $15 for possible one-time fees. If Tanner has

sesenic [268]

Let the number of months = x , and total budget = y

<span>An inequality to represent the situation:

$y \leq 20 x + 15$

For budget = $155
∴ 155 = 20 x +15
solve for x
20 x = 155 - 15 = 140
∴ x = 140/20 = 7

∴ T</span>he greatest number of months = 7 <span>months.</span>

4 0

3 years ago

Add 4 to n then devide by 5

nydimaria [60]

The equation would be like this:

$\frac{(4+n)}{5}$

Hoped I helped

5 0

3 years ago

The greater of two consecutive integers is 20 more than twice the smaller. find the integers.

Kipish [7]

Let x represent the smaller. Then x+1 is the greater of the two.

... x+1 = 2x +20

... 0 = x + 19 . . . . . subtract x+1

... x = -19

Your two integers are -19 and -18.

7 0

4 years ago

A Nevada roulette wheel had 38 pockets, labeled as 0 00 1 2 3 ... 35 36. One bet is single number. If you bet $1 on a number (an

slavikrds [6]

Answer:

-0.0526

Step-by-step explanation:

Let X be the random variable denoting the net gain(in dollars) for a single trial(one bet).

Assuming that each number in the wheel is equally likely, probability of the outcome being a victory is $\frac{1}{38}$ and probability of failure is $\frac{37}{38}$ . For a win, X takes value 35 and for a loss X takes value -1. So the model is,

$P(X=35) = \frac{1}{38}$

$P(X=-1) = \frac{37}{38}$

$P(X=i) = 0 \;if\; i \neq 38, i\neq -1$

The mean for one bet is $E(X) = \sum xP(X=x) = 35\times\frac{1}{38} - 1\times\frac{37}{38} = -0.0526$

3 0

3 years ago